English Practice Paper Set 5 for ssc cgl 2026 : 100 MCQs with Detailed Explanations

Section A: Grammar Error Correction

Directions for Questions 1–20

Each sentence is divided into parts (A), (B), and (C). Identify the part containing the grammatical error. Choose (D) No error when the sentence is correct.

1.

A series of procedural changes (A) / have confused students seeking admission (B) / to the postgraduate programmes. (C) / No error (D)

2.

The policy aims not only to reduce emissions (A) / but also encouraging fleet renewal (B) / through targeted incentives. (C) / No error (D)

3.

The court asked the investigating officer (A) / to explain why had he maintained (B) / the case diary on loose sheets. (C) / No error (D)

4.

She is one of those officials (A) / who has repeatedly warned (B) / the administration about procedural lapses. (C) / No error (D)

5.

The university had better to publish (A) / all eligibility criteria before students (B) / select the additional academic year. (C) / No error (D)

6.

Most students prefer receiving clear instructions (A) / than being informed of important conditions (B) / at the last possible moment. (C) / No error (D)

7.

In spite of the rain was heavy, (A) / the demonstrators continued their march (B) / towards the designated protest site. (C) / No error (D)

8.

The rescue team recovered several equipments (A) / that had been abandoned (B) / near the damaged vessel. (C) / No error (D)

9.

Only after the medical reports were filed (A) / the court considered (B) / the request for transferring the activist. (C) / No error (D)

10.

The lead physician, together with 2 specialists, (A) / were asked to attend (B) / the next judicial hearing. (C) / No error (D)

11.

Between you and I, (A) / the explanation offered by the authorities (B) / appears incomplete. (C) / No error (D)

12.

The data collected from authorised banks (A) / shows that foreign-currency inflows (B) / have increased substantially. (C) / No error (D)

13.

The report was so incomplete (A) / that the court ordered a fresh inquiry (B) / into the entire matter. (C) / No error (D)

14.

The government prevented the donated money (A) / to be diverted towards activities (B) / that had not been authorised. (C) / No error (D)

15.

The authorities should have acted (A) / before the tension escalated, shouldn’t they? (B) / The delay worsened the situation. (C) / No error (D)

16.

Notwithstanding of repeated objections, (A) / the proposed legislation was introduced (B) / for discussion in the Assembly. (C) / No error (D)

17.

The scheme requires every eligible vehicle owner (A) / to scrapping the obsolete vehicle (B) / before claiming the incentive. (C) / No error (D)

18.

The university has fewer capacity (A) / than is required to accommodate (B) / all eligible graduates. (C) / No error (D)

19.

If the admission criteria were communicated earlier, (A) / students would have made (B) / more informed academic choices. (C) / No error (D)

20.

The court found the investigation to be shoddy (A) / and directed that it be transferred (B) / to an independent agency. (C) / No error (D)


Section B: Synonyms

Directions for Questions 21–35

Choose the option closest in meaning to the given word.

21. Alacrity

A) Eagerness and readiness
B) Fear and hesitation
C) Physical exhaustion
D) Careless opposition

22. Cogent

A) Uncertain
B) Convincing
C) Offensive
D) Lengthy

23. Inchoate

A) Carefully completed
B) Fully organised
C) Not completely formed
D) Officially approved

24. Retributive

A) Intended as punishment
B) Intended as financial support
C) Meant to encourage discussion
D) Designed to prevent illness

25. Verdant

A) Dry and barren
B) Covered with green vegetation
C) Densely populated
D) Artificially illuminated

26. Melee

A) A formal agreement
B) A confused fight or struggle
C) A peaceful procession
D) A judicial inquiry

27. Repercussion

A) Cause
B) Warning
C) Consequence
D) Objection

28. Inviolable

A) Open to modification
B) Impossible to enforce
C) Not to be violated
D) Temporarily suspended

29. Purported

A) Claimed or alleged
B) Scientifically proven
C) Completely rejected
D) Officially implemented

30. Shoddy

A) Carefully prepared
B) Of poor quality
C) Highly expensive
D) Legally binding

31. Avid

A) Indifferent
B) Highly enthusiastic
C) Extremely cautious
D) Temporarily absent

32. Lacuna

A) A gap or deficiency
B) A major achievement
C) A legal remedy
D) An immediate response

33. Bullheaded

A) Flexible
B) Stubborn
C) Generous
D) Impartial

34. Truncated

A) Extended considerably
B) Shortened abruptly
C) Repeated frequently
D) Completed successfully

35. Anchor

A) To destabilise completely
B) To provide stability or support
C) To abandon midway
D) To postpone indefinitely


Section C: Antonyms

Directions for Questions 36–50

Choose the option opposite in meaning to the given word.

36. Alacrity

A) Enthusiasm
B) Readiness
C) Reluctance
D) Promptness

37. Cogent

A) Convincing
B) Logical
C) Forceful
D) Unconvincing

38. Verdant

A) Lush
B) Barren
C) Green
D) Fertile

39. Inviolable

A) Sacred
B) Protected
C) Violable
D) Absolute

40. Shoddy

A) Inferior
B) Careless
C) Superior
D) Defective

41. Avid

A) Keen
B) Enthusiastic
C) Indifferent
D) Eager

42. Accrued

A) Accumulated
B) Collected
C) Diminished
D) Gathered

43. Turbulent

A) Stormy
B) Disorderly
C) Tranquil
D) Violent

44. Punitive

A) Corrective
B) Lenient
C) Retributive
D) Severe

45. Explicit

A) Direct
B) Definite
C) Implicit
D) Clear

46. Arbitrary

A) Random
B) Unreasonable
C) Reasoned
D) Capricious

47. Dormant

A) Inactive
B) Active
C) Sleeping
D) Latent

48. Augment

A) Increase
B) Expand
C) Diminish
D) Strengthen

49. Coherent

A) Logical
B) Consistent
C) Incoherent
D) Organised

50. Obsolete

A) Outdated
B) Current
C) Antiquated
D) Disused


Section D: Reading Comprehension

Passage 1: Inflation and Supply-Side Pressures

Inflation is often attributed to excessive demand, but prices may also rise when the supply of essential goods becomes restricted. Food inflation, for example, can result from inadequate rainfall, crop damage, transportation problems or a shortage of storage facilities. These factors raise prices even when household demand has not increased significantly.

Fuel prices influence a much wider range of products. When international crude-oil prices rise, transportation and production costs increase. Manufacturers may then pass these additional costs on to consumers. A purely demand-focused monetary response may therefore fail to address the source of the problem.

Governments can adopt complementary measures. Investment in irrigation and storage can reduce agricultural vulnerability, while a countercyclical tax policy can cushion consumers against sharp increases in global oil prices. Under such a policy, fuel duties may be temporarily reduced when crude prices soar and restored after pressures subside.

51. What is the main argument of the passage?

A) Inflation is always caused by excessive household spending.
B) Supply shortages and higher production costs can also cause inflation.
C) Monetary policy can immediately solve every type of inflation.
D) Fuel prices have no influence on manufactured goods.

52. The term “countercyclical” refers to a policy that:

A) Moves against prevailing economic pressures
B) Permanently raises every tax
C) Encourages inflation during shortages
D) Removes all government revenue

53. Why might the government temporarily reduce fuel duties?

A) To increase the cost of transportation
B) To discourage the use of irrigation
C) To cushion consumers against soaring crude-oil prices
D) To reduce the supply of manufactured goods

54. According to the passage, food inflation may result from:

A) Excessive industrial investment alone
B) Inadequate rainfall and supply constraints
C) Lower transportation costs
D) A permanent decline in demand

55. Which inference is most reasonable?

A) Monetary tightening alone may not correct supply-driven inflation.
B) Higher interest rates always increase food production.
C) Storage infrastructure has no effect on prices.
D) Global oil prices affect only oil-producing countries.


Passage 2: Dissent and Democratic Government

A democratic government must tolerate criticism, including criticism that is uncomfortable or politically damaging. Criminal law should not become a convenient shield for protecting the reputation of those in power. When every allegation, satirical comment or harsh political statement is treated as a criminal offence, citizens may become afraid to express legitimate disagreement.

This does not mean that all forms of speech deserve protection. Direct threats, incitement to violence and deliberately harmful content may require legal action. However, the response must be proportionate and consistent with the supremacy of free expression.

Civil suits, public rebuttals and political debate are often more appropriate responses to criticism than immediate arrest. A government that reacts to dissent with excessive alacrity risks weakening public trust and turning ordinary political disagreement into a structural threat to democracy.

56. What is the central idea of the passage?

A) Every form of speech must be criminally punished.
B) Criminal law should not be routinely used to suppress legitimate dissent.
C) Political leaders should never respond to criticism.
D) Civil suits are more severe than imprisonment.

57. The word “alacrity” in the last paragraph means:

A) Eager promptness
B) Complete indifference
C) Judicial uncertainty
D) Physical weakness

58. Which response to ordinary political criticism does the passage consider more appropriate?

A) Immediate detention
B) Permanent surveillance
C) Public rebuttal or civil proceedings
D) Suspension of all communication

59. What balance does the passage recommend?

A) Freedom of expression must be balanced with action against genuine threats and incitement.
B) All criticism should be prohibited during elections.
C) Governments must ignore direct threats of violence.
D) Political debate should be replaced by criminal trials.

60. Which word best describes the tone of the passage?

A) Critical and cautionary
B) Humorous and playful
C) Entirely celebratory
D) Uninterested and detached


Passage 3: Bank Performance and Investor Expectations

A bank may report an increase in quarterly profit and still receive a negative response from investors. Financial markets evaluate not only whether profit has grown but also whether the growth matches expectations and compares favourably with competitors.

A decline in net interest margin can be a particular concern. This margin represents the difference between interest earned on loans and interest paid on deposits and other funding sources. It may narrow when the cost of funds rises, competition for deposits intensifies or the return on lending declines.

When competing banks report significantly stronger profit growth, even a positive result may be viewed as underperformance. Brokerage downgrades can further weaken sentiment, causing a decline in the bank’s share price and erosion of shareholder wealth.

61. Why may investors react negatively even when a bank reports profit growth?

A) Investors never consider quarterly results.
B) Growth may be weaker than expectations and competitors’ performance.
C) Profit growth automatically reduces share prices.
D) Banks are not permitted to earn quarterly profits.

62. The word “erosion” in the passage means:

A) Gradual reduction or loss
B) Sudden expansion
C) Legal protection
D) Complete recovery

63. Which factor may reduce a bank’s net interest margin?

A) Lower funding costs
B) Reduced competition for deposits
C) Rising cost of funds
D) Higher returns from lending

64. What do brokerage downgrades generally indicate?

A) Analysts have become less optimistic about the bank.
B) The bank has exceeded every market expectation.
C) Shareholders will necessarily receive higher dividends.
D) Competition in the banking industry has ended.

65. Which inference is supported by the passage?

A) Investors assess performance in relative as well as absolute terms.
B) Any increase in profit guarantees a rise in share price.
C) Net interest margin is unrelated to bank profitability.
D) Competitors’ results have no effect on market sentiment.


Section E: Cloze Tests

Cloze Test 1

The parents alleged that the initial investigation had been conducted in a (66) manner. The court found that the case diary did not meet professional (67) and contained loose sheets instead of properly maintained records. It therefore ordered that the investigation be (68) to an independent agency. The Bench also noted that a show-cause notice had been (69) to the investigating officer. The order was intended to restore public (70) in the inquiry.

66.

A) Meticulous
B) Shoddy
C) Transparent
D) Exemplary

67.

A) Standards
B) Profits
C) Vacancies
D) Celebrations

68.

A) Abandoned
B) Concealed
C) Transferred
D) Postponed

69.

A) Issued
B) Avoided
C) Withdrawn secretly
D) Celebrated

70.

A) Suspicion
B) Hostility
C) Confidence
D) Indifference


Cloze Test 2

The central bank introduced a foreign-currency swap facility to (71) additional foreign exchange. Authorised banks offered (72) swaps for fresh deposits and overseas borrowings. The programme attracted (73) interest and generated substantial capital (74). The measure was expected to strengthen the country’s balance of (75).

71.

A) Mobilise
B) Eliminate
C) Conceal
D) Waste

72.

A) Punitive
B) Concessional
C) Arbitrary
D) Obsolete

73.

A) Reluctant
B) Avid
C) Negligible
D) Hostile

74.

A) Outflows
B) Penalties
C) Inflows
D) Shortages

75.

A) Payments
B) Sentences
C) Allegations
D) Emissions


Cloze Test 3

The team’s bowling performance exposed a serious (76) in experience. Several senior bowlers had been (77), while inexperienced players struggled under pressure. The captain’s effectiveness was also (78) on his physical fitness. Critics urged the selectors to include at least one (79) fast bowler and abandon their (80) approach to team selection.

76.

A) Achievement
B) Lacuna
C) Advantage
D) Abundance

77.

A) Honoured
B) Recalled
C) Shunned
D) Promoted

78.

A) Independent
B) Contingent
C) Opposed
D) Superior

79.

A) Seasoned
B) Inexperienced
C) Temporary
D) Untrained

80.

A) Impartial
B) Flexible
C) Blinkered
D) Transparent


Section F: Para Jumbles

Directions for Questions 81–100

Arrange the sentences marked P, Q, R, and S in the correct order.


81.

P. A ceiling fan fell on a patient in a hospital ward.
Q. The patient died several hours after the incident.
R. The government constituted a committee to investigate the matter.
S. The panel was directed to submit its findings within 3 days.

A) QPRS
B) PQRS
C) PRQS
D) RQSP


82.

P. The university announced that 2 control rooms would monitor violations.
Q. It also warned candidates against using artificial intelligence to alter documents.
R. With the new academic session approaching, officials reviewed campus-safety arrangements.
S. Banners detailing punishments for ragging were planned across colleges.

A) RPSQ
B) PRSQ
C) RQPS
D) SPRQ


83.

P. Church leaders examined the proposed amendment relating to foreign contributions.
Q. They argued that existing reporting requirements already enabled proper monitoring.
R. Some provisions concerning assets created partly through foreign funds caused alarm.
S. They consequently urged Members of Parliament to oppose the Bill.

A) QPRS
B) PRQS
C) PQRS
D) RSPQ


84.

P. The parents approached the High Court alleging that the police inquiry was improper.
Q. The court found that the case diary consisted of poorly maintained loose sheets.
R. It noted that a show-cause notice had already been issued to the officer.
S. It nevertheless transferred the investigation to the State CID.

A) PQRS
B) QPRS
C) PRSQ
D) RQPS


85.

P. National Conference leaders planned a demonstration demanding the restoration of Statehood.
Q. Heavy police deployment prevented the Chief Minister from reaching the original site.
R. He then staged a sit-in on a nearby pavement.
S. A rival party stayed away and described the event as lacklustre.

A) QPRS
B) PQRS
C) PRQS
D) RSPQ


86.

P. Three political groups scheduled competing rallies within a small area of Kolkata.
Q. Police denied permission to use the venue traditionally associated with the event.
R. The rival factions therefore selected separate alternative locations.
S. The rallies were viewed as a test of their ability to mobilise supporters.

A) PQRS
B) QPRS
C) PRSQ
D) RQSP


87.

P. The Prime Minister appealed to members to engage in informed and respectful debate.
Q. Opposition MPs raised questions about examination leaks and other contentious matters.
R. Repeated disruptions eventually forced adjournments.
S. The Monsoon Session of Parliament began amid considerable political tension.

A) SPQR
B) PQRS
C) SQPR
D) PSRQ


88.

P. An inadequate monsoon restricted the supply of several food products.
Q. Food prices consequently rose even without a large increase in demand.
R. Higher crude-oil prices separately raised manufacturing and transportation costs.
S. Economists recommended irrigation investment and a flexible indirect-tax policy.

A) QPRS
B) PRQS
C) PQRS
D) RSPQ


89.

P. The Supreme Court recognised safe access to footpaths as a constitutional right.
Q. This transformed pedestrian infrastructure from a minor municipal matter into a rights issue.
R. Governments must now create continuous and accessible pavements.
S. Regular audits can help determine whether those obligations are being fulfilled.

A) PQRS
B) QPRS
C) PRSQ
D) RQSP


90.

P. Canada began seeking a wider range of reliable defence suppliers.
Q. India offered manufacturing scale and experience with cost-effective platforms.
R. Rapid developments in drones and autonomous weapons were changing modern warfare.
S. Cooperation could therefore include research, co-development and subsystem production.

A) PQRS
B) RPQS
C) RQPS
D) QRSP


91.

P. A major private bank reported a modest increase in quarterly profit.
Q. Its net interest margin had also declined because of rising funding costs.
R. Stronger results from competing banks made its underperformance more visible.
S. Brokerage downgrades followed, and the bank’s shares fell sharply.

A) PRQS
B) PQRS
C) RPSQ
D) QPRS


92.

P. The central bank announced a concessional foreign-currency swap facility.
Q. The measure was intended to strengthen the balance of payments.
R. Authorised banks mobilised funds through deposits and overseas borrowings.
S. The facility subsequently generated inflows exceeding $20 billion.

A) QPRS
B) PQRS
C) PRSQ
D) RQSP


93.

P. Spain’s midfield controlled possession and dictated the pace of matches.
Q. Seven different players contributed goals during the tournament.
R. The team’s collective excellence eventually secured the title.
S. Spain conceded only 1 goal in 8 matches.

A) QSPR
B) SPQR
C) SQPR
D) PSRQ


94.

P. Several inexperienced fast bowlers struggled when placed under pressure.
Q. India entered the match without an established senior pacer.
R. Analysts consequently called for the inclusion of a seasoned bowler.
S. The repeated exclusion of an experienced spinner also attracted criticism.

A) QPSR
B) PQRS
C) QPRS
D) PSQR


95.

P. The world champion’s recent performances had been inconsistent.
Q. An important title defence was approaching.
R. A former champion nevertheless expressed confidence in the young player.
S. He believed that the player could recover before the major contest.

A) PQRS
B) QPRS
C) PRSQ
D) RSPQ


96.

P. Indian naval vessels responded immediately to the emergency alert.
Q. The hostages were rescued and the pirates were apprehended.
R. Armed pirates had hijacked commercial vessels and held sailors for ransom.
S. A special court later imposed life imprisonment on the accused.

A) PRQS
B) RPQS
C) RQPS
D) QRSP


97.

P. A merchant vessel was attacked shortly after leaving the port of Odessa.
Q. Several crew members, including Indian seafarers, were killed or injured.
R. India condemned the targeting of civilian commercial shipping.
S. Ukraine informed international organisations and the affected governments.

A) PQRS
B) QPRS
C) PRSQ
D) RQSP


98.

P. Many students completed a fourth undergraduate year expecting a shorter master’s pathway.
Q. They later learned that only about 1,100 seats were available for more than 30,000 graduates.
R. Student organisations protested and demanded an increase in capacity.
S. The university constituted a committee to examine the demand.

A) QPRS
B) PQRS
C) PRQS
D) RSPQ


99.

P. Demonstrators gathered in large numbers at the designated protest site.
Q. Mobile Internet services were subsequently suspended across central areas.
R. The communication shutdown impeded the circulation of images and information.
S. Security forces began dispersing the crowds with force.

A) PSQR
B) PQRS
C) SPRQ
D) QPRS


100.

P. Arjun remained composed despite facing a highly difficult position.
Q. The world champion appeared close to securing victory.
R. Arjun discovered unexpected tactical resources and turned the game around.
S. His comeback resulted in a dramatic win.

A) PQRS
B) QPRS
C) QRPS
D) RPQS

Section A: Grammar Error Correction

1. Answer: B

The subject is a series, which is singular. The phrase of procedural changes does not determine the verb.

Incorrect: A series of procedural changes have confused students.
Correct: A series of procedural changes has confused students.


2. Answer: B

The correlative structure not only…but also requires parallel grammatical forms.

Incorrect: not only to reduce emissions but also encouraging fleet renewal
Correct: not only to reduce emissions but also to encourage fleet renewal


3. Answer: B

In an indirect question, normal statement word order is used.

Incorrect: why had he maintained
Correct: why he had maintained

Correct sentence:

The court asked the investigating officer to explain why he had maintained the case diary on loose sheets.


4. Answer: B

In the expression one of those + plural noun + who, the relative pronoun who refers to the plural noun officials.

Incorrect: officials who has repeatedly warned
Correct: officials who have repeatedly warned


5. Answer: A

The expression had better is followed by the base form of the verb without to.

Incorrect: had better to publish
Correct: had better publish


6. Answer: B

The correct structure is:

Prefer X to Y

Incorrect: prefer receiving instructions than being informed
Correct: prefer receiving instructions to being informed


7. Answer: A

In spite of must be followed by a noun, pronoun or gerund, not a complete clause.

Incorrect: In spite of the rain was heavy
Correct: Although the rain was heavy

Another possible correction:

In spite of the heavy rain…


8. Answer: A

Equipment is an uncountable noun and does not normally take a plural form.

Incorrect: several equipments
Correct: several pieces of equipment


9. Answer: B

When a negative or restrictive expression such as only after begins a sentence, inversion is required in the main clause.

Incorrect: Only after the reports were filed, the court considered…
Correct: Only after the reports were filed did the court consider


10. Answer: B

The main subject is the lead physician, which is singular. The phrase together with 2 specialists does not change the number of the subject.

Incorrect: were asked
Correct: was asked


11. Answer: A

A pronoun following a preposition must be in the objective case.

Incorrect: between you and I
Correct: between you and me


12. Answer: B

In formal competitive-exam English, data is treated as the plural of datum.

Incorrect: The data…shows
Correct: The data…show


13. Answer: D — No error

The sentence correctly uses the structure:

so + adjective + that + result

The report was so incomplete that the court ordered a fresh inquiry.


14. Answer: B

The correct construction is:

Prevent something from being done

Incorrect: prevented the money to be diverted
Correct: prevented the money from being diverted


15. Answer: D — No error

The statement contains the modal should, so the negative question tag is:

shouldn’t they?

The pronoun they correctly refers to the authorities.


16. Answer: A

Notwithstanding means despite and is not followed by of.

Incorrect: Notwithstanding of repeated objections
Correct: Notwithstanding repeated objections


17. Answer: B

The verb require takes the structure:

require someone to do something

Incorrect: requires every owner to scrapping
Correct: requires every owner to scrap


18. Answer: A

Capacity is uncountable, so less, not fewer, must be used.

Incorrect: fewer capacity
Correct: less capacity

Use:

  • fewer seats
  • less capacity

19. Answer: A

The sentence describes an unreal past situation. Therefore, the if-clause must use the past perfect.

Incorrect: If the criteria were communicated earlier
Correct: If the criteria had been communicated earlier

Correct sentence:

If the admission criteria had been communicated earlier, students would have made more informed choices.


20. Answer: D — No error

The sentence correctly uses the formal subjunctive structure:

directed that it be transferred

The adjective shoddy also correctly describes a poorly conducted investigation.


Section B: Synonyms

21. Answer: A — Eagerness and readiness

Alacrity means cheerful willingness or great readiness to act.

Example:

The administration acted with unusual alacrity.


22. Answer: B — Convincing

Cogent means clear, logical and convincing.

Example:

The advocate presented a cogent argument before the court.


23. Answer: C — Not completely formed

Inchoate describes something that has begun but is still unclear, undeveloped or not fully organised.

Example:

The protesters expressed an inchoate sense of anger.


24. Answer: A — Intended as punishment

Retributive means intended to punish someone for a perceived wrong.

Example:

She feared retributive action from the authorities.


25. Answer: B — Covered with green vegetation

Verdant means green with grass, plants or other vegetation.

Example:

Police vehicles drove across the verdant lawns.


26. Answer: B — A confused fight or struggle

A melee is a noisy, confused fight involving several people.

Example:

Many people were injured in the melee.


27. Answer: C — Consequence

A repercussion is an indirect or unintended consequence of an action or event.

Example:

The decision could have serious political repercussions.


28. Answer: C — Not to be violated

Inviolable means too important or sacred to be violated, broken or disregarded.

Example:

The right to peaceful protest was described as inviolable.


29. Answer: A — Claimed or alleged

Purported means claimed to be true or genuine, often without sufficient proof.

Example:

The purported land transaction was denied by the party.


30. Answer: B — Of poor quality

Shoddy means badly made, carelessly completed or of inferior quality.

Example:

The court criticised the shoddy investigation.


31. Answer: B — Highly enthusiastic

Avid means extremely eager, interested or enthusiastic.

Example:

The financial facility attracted avid interest from banks.


32. Answer: A — A gap or deficiency

A lacuna is a missing part, gap or weakness in a system, argument or arrangement.

Example:

The absence of experienced bowlers exposed a major lacuna.


33. Answer: B — Stubborn

Bullheaded means unwilling to change one’s opinion despite reasonable arguments.

Example:

The selectors were criticised for their bullheaded approach.


34. Answer: B — Shortened abruptly

Truncated means made shorter by cutting off a part or ending something before completion.

Example:

Bad light caused a truncated day of play.


35. Answer: B — To provide stability or support

As a verb, anchor means to provide stability, strength or support.

Example:

The batter anchored the team’s innings with an unbeaten century.


Section C: Antonyms

36. Answer: C — Reluctance

Alacrity means eagerness and readiness.
Reluctance means unwillingness or hesitation.


37. Answer: D — Unconvincing

Cogent means logical and convincing.
Its opposite is unconvincing.


38. Answer: B — Barren

Verdant means green and fertile.
Barren means dry, unproductive or without vegetation.


39. Answer: C — Violable

Inviolable means that which must not be violated.
Violable means capable of being violated or broken.


40. Answer: C — Superior

Shoddy means inferior or poorly made.
Superior means high in quality.


41. Answer: C — Indifferent

Avid means enthusiastic or intensely interested.
Indifferent means showing little or no interest.


42. Answer: C — Diminished

Accrued means accumulated or increased over time.
Diminished means reduced or decreased.


43. Answer: C — Tranquil

Turbulent means disorderly, stormy or disturbed.
Tranquil means peaceful and calm.


44. Answer: B — Lenient

Punitive means intended as punishment.
Lenient means merciful or less severe.


45. Answer: C — Implicit

Explicit means stated directly and clearly.
Implicit means suggested or understood without being directly stated.


46. Answer: C — Reasoned

Arbitrary means based on personal choice rather than logic or rules.
Reasoned means supported by logical thought.


47. Answer: B — Active

Dormant means inactive or temporarily not developing.
Its opposite is active.


48. Answer: C — Diminish

Augment means to increase or enlarge.
Diminish means to reduce.


49. Answer: C — Incoherent

Coherent means logical, consistent and clearly connected.
Incoherent means confusing or lacking logical connection.


50. Answer: B — Current

Obsolete means no longer useful because something newer has replaced it.
Current means presently used or up to date.


Section D: Reading Comprehension

Passage 1: Inflation and Supply-Side Pressures

51. Answer: B

The passage explains that inflation is not caused only by excessive demand. It may also arise from:

  • inadequate rainfall;
  • crop damage;
  • supply shortages;
  • higher fuel prices;
  • rising transportation and production costs.

Therefore, option B expresses the main idea.


52. Answer: A

A countercyclical policy acts against the direction of existing economic pressure.

For example, when international fuel prices rise, the government may reduce taxes to limit the increase faced by consumers.


53. Answer: C

Reducing fuel duties lowers the tax component of petrol and diesel prices. This can protect, or cushion, consumers and manufacturers from the full impact of rising crude-oil prices.


54. Answer: B

The passage states that food prices may rise because of inadequate rainfall and supply-related problems, even when demand has not increased substantially.


55. Answer: A

Monetary tightening generally targets demand. However, if inflation is caused by damaged crops, expensive fuel or inadequate supply, reducing demand alone may not solve the underlying problem.


Passage 2: Dissent and Democratic Government

56. Answer: B

The passage argues that governments should not use criminal law routinely to silence legitimate criticism or political disagreement.

It distinguishes ordinary dissent from genuine threats or incitement.


57. Answer: A — Eager promptness

In the passage, alacrity refers to the government’s quick and eager use of criminal action against critics.


58. Answer: C

For ordinary political criticism, the passage recommends:

  • public rebuttals;
  • civil suits;
  • political debate.

These are generally more proportionate than immediate arrest.


59. Answer: A

The passage supports freedom of expression while recognising that direct threats, incitement and deliberately harmful content may justify lawful restrictions.


60. Answer: A — Critical and cautionary

The author criticises excessive use of criminal law and warns that it can damage public trust and democratic institutions.

Therefore, the tone is critical and cautionary.


Passage 3: Bank Performance and Investor Expectations

61. Answer: B

Investors compare reported profits with:

  • market expectations;
  • earlier performance;
  • results of competing banks;
  • other indicators such as net interest margin.

A positive result may still be disappointing when it is relatively weak.


62. Answer: A — Gradual reduction or loss

In the phrase erosion of shareholder wealth, erosion means a reduction in the market value of investors’ holdings.


63. Answer: C

A bank’s net interest margin may decline when the cost of obtaining funds rises.

The bank then pays more interest on deposits or borrowings while its lending returns may not increase equally.


64. Answer: A

A brokerage downgrade generally means that analysts have reduced their expectations or become less confident about the bank’s future performance.


65. Answer: A

The passage shows that investors assess results relatively:

  • against expectations;
  • against competitors;
  • against previous performance.

Profit growth alone does not guarantee a favourable market response.


Section E: Cloze Tests

Cloze Test 1

66. Answer: B — Shoddy

The parents claimed that the original investigation was careless and of poor quality. Therefore, shoddy is appropriate.


67. Answer: A — Standards

The natural expression is:

meet professional standards

The case diary failed to meet the required quality and procedural standards.


68. Answer: C — Transferred

Because the original investigation was found inadequate, the court ordered that it be transferred to an independent agency.


69. Answer: A — Issued

The correct legal expression is:

issue a show-cause notice

It means formally requiring someone to explain their conduct.


70. Answer: C — Confidence

An independent investigation may restore public confidence, meaning trust or faith, in the inquiry.


Cloze Test 2

71. Answer: A — Mobilise

To mobilise foreign exchange means to collect or obtain foreign-currency funds from different sources.


72. Answer: B — Concessional

A concessional swap is offered on favourable or reduced terms to encourage participation.


73. Answer: B — Avid

The expression avid interest means strong enthusiasm or eagerness.

The programme attracted significant interest from banks and depositors.


74. Answer: C — Inflows

Money entering the country or financial system is described as an inflow.

Outflow would mean money leaving it.


75. Answer: A — Payments

The correct economic term is:

balance of payments

It records a country’s economic transactions with the rest of the world.


Cloze Test 3

76. Answer: B — Lacuna

A lacuna in experience means a serious gap or deficiency in the team’s level of experience.


77. Answer: C — Shunned

Shunned means deliberately avoided, ignored or excluded.

The senior bowlers were not selected despite their experience.


78. Answer: B — Contingent

The expression contingent on means dependent on.

The captain’s effectiveness depended on his physical fitness.


79. Answer: A — Seasoned

A seasoned bowler is an experienced and skilful bowler who has played in many difficult situations.


80. Answer: C — Blinkered

Blinkered thinking means having a narrow outlook and refusing to consider alternative ideas.

The critics wanted selectors to abandon their limited approach.


Section F: Para Jumbles

81. Answer: B — PQRS

  • P introduces the accident.
  • Q states that the patient later died.
  • R gives the government’s response.
  • S states the deadline given to the committee.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


82. Answer: A — RPSQ

  • R introduces the approaching session and review of safety arrangements.
  • P gives the first anti-ragging measure.
  • S adds another anti-ragging measure involving banners.
  • Q gives the additional warning concerning altered documents.

Correct order: R → P → S → Q


83. Answer: C — PQRS

  • P introduces the proposed amendment and its examination.
  • Q gives the leaders’ argument about existing monitoring rules.
  • R identifies the provisions that caused concern.
  • S gives their resulting appeal to MPs.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


84. Answer: A — PQRS

  • P introduces the parents’ petition.
  • Q states what the court found in the case diary.
  • R adds that disciplinary action had already begun.
  • S explains that the court nevertheless transferred the investigation.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


85. Answer: B — PQRS

  • P introduces the planned Statehood protest.
  • Q explains why the Chief Minister could not reach the site.
  • R gives his subsequent response.
  • S adds the rival party’s criticism.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


86. Answer: A — PQRS

  • P introduces the competing rallies.
  • Q explains the police restriction on the traditional location.
  • R gives the factions’ resulting choice of alternative sites.
  • S explains the political importance of the rallies.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


87. Answer: A — SPQR

  • S introduces the beginning of the Monsoon Session.
  • P states the Prime Minister’s appeal.
  • Q gives the Opposition’s response.
  • R describes the resulting adjournments.

Correct order: S → P → Q → R


88. Answer: C — PQRS

  • P introduces the inadequate monsoon and supply problem.
  • Q gives its effect on food prices.
  • R introduces the separate effect of expensive crude oil.
  • S provides the recommended policy responses.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


89. Answer: A — PQRS

  • P introduces the Supreme Court’s recognition of the right.
  • Q explains the significance of that decision.
  • R states the government’s resulting obligation.
  • S suggests a method for monitoring implementation.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


90. Answer: B — RPQS

  • R provides the global background of changing warfare.
  • P explains Canada’s resulting search for diverse suppliers.
  • Q introduces India’s complementary strengths.
  • S gives the possible forms of cooperation.

Correct order: R → P → Q → S


91. Corrected Answer: B — PQRS

  • P introduces the bank’s modest profit growth.
  • Q adds another weakness: the fall in net interest margin.
  • R explains that stronger competitors made the underperformance clearer.
  • S gives the market consequences.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S

The earlier sequence PRQS was less suitable because also in Q naturally links the margin decline to the modest profit result introduced in P.


92. Answer: B — PQRS

  • P introduces the foreign-currency swap facility.
  • Q explains its purpose.
  • R describes the mobilisation of funds.
  • S gives the eventual amount collected.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


93. Answer: B — SPQR

  • S introduces Spain’s outstanding defensive record.
  • P adds its control of midfield and possession.
  • Q shows that goals were distributed among several players.
  • R gives the final result of this collective strength.

Correct order: S → P → Q → R


94. Corrected Answer: C — QPRS

  • Q introduces the absence of an established senior pacer.
  • P states the resulting struggle of inexperienced bowlers.
  • R gives the analysts’ consequent demand for an experienced fast bowler.
  • S adds the separate criticism regarding the spinner’s exclusion.

Correct order: Q → P → R → S

The word consequently in R directly links the call for a senior bowler to the inexperienced attack’s struggle.


95. Answer: A — PQRS

  • P introduces the player’s poor recent form.
  • Q establishes the urgency of the approaching defence.
  • R presents the former champion’s positive opinion.
  • S explains the basis of his confidence.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


96. Answer: B — RPQS

  • R introduces the hijacking and hostages.
  • P gives the naval response.
  • Q describes the rescue and arrests.
  • S concludes with the court’s punishment.

Correct order: R → P → Q → S


97. Answer: A — PQRS

  • P introduces the attack on the vessel.
  • Q gives the casualties.
  • R states India’s condemnation.
  • S describes Ukraine’s international communication.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


98. Answer: B — PQRS

  • P explains why students chose the fourth undergraduate year.
  • Q reveals the severe seat shortage.
  • R states the students’ reaction.
  • S gives the university’s response.

Correct order: P → Q → R → S


99. Answer: A — PSQR

  • P introduces the gathering of demonstrators.
  • S states that security forces began dispersing them.
  • Q gives the subsequent suspension of Internet services.
  • R explains the effect of the communications shutdown.

Correct order: P → S → Q → R


100. Answer: B — QPRS

  • Q introduces the world champion’s apparently winning position.
  • P shows that Arjun remained calm under pressure.
  • R describes his tactical recovery.
  • S gives the final result.

Correct order: Q → P → R → S


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