2026 Current Affairs
QUESTION 21Under the Export Promotion Mission, 'Niryat Prothsahan' provides interest subvention on which type of finance?
Export Promotion Mission के अंतर्गत 'Niryat Prothsahan' किस प्रकार के finance पर interest subvention प्रदान करता है?A. Pre- and post-shipment export creditB. Agricultural term loans onlyC. Housing loans for exportersD. Foreign direct investment loans
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The correct answer is pre- and post-shipment export credit. According to the source, Niryat Prothsahan is an interest-subvention initiative operating under the Export Promotion Mission. It provides interest subvention on pre-shipment as well as post-shipment export credit. These two forms of credit are directly connected to financing export activity before goods are shipped and after shipment while payment-related processes are completed. The source emphasises that the subvention is applicable strictly only to export credit covered under the scheme. Therefore it should not be interpreted as a general interest subsidy available for every type of business borrowing by an exporter. Eligible lending institutions are required to extend the subvention in accordance with the scheme and Reserve Bank of India regulations. Exporters must submit their claims according to prescribed procedures for reimbursement. This administrative requirement is important because the scheme is designed to operate within the existing regulatory framework rather than outside normal banking rules. The source explicitly states that implementation must comply with RBI's extant regulatory instructions. The broader objective is to improve India's export competitiveness and provide financial support to exporters. Lowering the effective interest burden on eligible export credit can improve access to working capital and reduce financing costs associated with export transactions. For examination revision, remember: Niryat Prothsahan → Export Promotion Mission → interest subvention → pre-shipment export credit + post-shipment export credit → eligible lending institutions → RBI regulations → exporter claims according to prescribed procedure → reimbursement → export competitiveness + financial support. Students should also distinguish this initiative from Market Access Support. MAS focuses on global reach, visibility, markets and exporter diversification, while Niryat Prothsahan focuses specifically on the financing side through interest subvention on eligible export credit. Therefore option A is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Paripoorna Mediclaim Ayush Bima:
1. It is available to CGHS beneficiaries as an optional retail health insurance product.
2. The available sum-insured options are ₹10 lakh and ₹20 lakh.
3. The policy offers 70:30 and 50:50 co-payment options.
4. Normal room rent is capped at 1% of the sum insured per day and ICU rent at 2%.
5. Pre-hospitalisation coverage is 30 days and post-hospitalisation coverage is 60 days.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Paripoorna Mediclaim Ayush Bima के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. यह CGHS beneficiaries के लिए optional retail health insurance product के रूप में available है।
2. Available sum-insured options ₹10 lakh और ₹20 lakh हैं।
3. Policy 70:30 और 50:50 co-payment options offer करती है।
4. Normal room rent cap per day sum insured का 1% और ICU rent cap 2% है।
5. Pre-hospitalisation coverage 30 days और post-hospitalisation coverage 60 days है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. Paripoorna Mediclaim Ayush Bima was launched by the Finance Ministry for beneficiaries of the Central Government Health Scheme. The plan is optional and is available as a retail insurance product to all CGHS beneficiaries. Therefore statement 1 is correct. It provides indemnity-based in-patient hospitalisation coverage within India. Two sum-insured options are given: ₹10 lakh and ₹20 lakh, making statement 2 correct. The source provides two co-payment structures, 70:30 and 50:50, between the insurer and subscribers, so statement 3 is correct. These co-sharing arrangements are associated with discounts of 28 percent and 42 percent respectively compared with regular policies. Room-rent limits are explicitly given as 1 percent of the sum insured per day for normal rooms and 2 percent for ICU accommodation, confirming statement 4. The policy also covers expenses for 30 days before hospitalisation and 60 days after hospitalisation, making statement 5 correct. Another feature is a cumulative bonus of 10 percent for every claim-free year, up to a maximum of 100 percent of the sum insured. The policy is provided by state-run New India Assurance. Competitive examinations may interchange the 30-day and 60-day periods, reverse the 1 percent and 2 percent room caps or alter the co-payment ratios. Students should therefore remember the numerical structure clearly: ₹10/20 lakh cover; 70:30/50:50 co-pay; 28%/42% discounts; 1% normal room/2% ICU; 10% annual claim-free bonus up to 100%; 30 days pre/60 days post hospitalisation. Since all statements in the question accurately reflect the source, option D is the correct answer.
Paripoorna Mediclaim Ayush Bima, launched for CGHS beneficiaries, is provided by which insurance company?
CGHS beneficiaries के लिए launch की गई Paripoorna Mediclaim Ayush Bima किस insurance company द्वारा provided है?A. Life Insurance Corporation of IndiaB. New India AssuranceC. United India InsuranceD. National Insurance Company
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The correct answer is New India Assurance. According to the source, the Finance Ministry launched Paripoorna Mediclaim Ayush Bima for beneficiaries of the Central Government Health Scheme, commonly abbreviated as CGHS. The policy is described as an optional health insurance plan available as a retail product to all CGHS beneficiaries. It is provided by the state-run New India Assurance. The policy covers indemnity-based in-patient hospitalisation within India and offers sum-insured choices of ₹10 lakh or ₹20 lakh. The source also specifies two co-payment arrangements: 70:30 and 50:50 between the insurer and subscribers. Corresponding discounts of 28 percent and 42 percent are available for these co-sharing options compared with regular policies. Room-rent limits are another important feature. Normal-room rent is capped at 1 percent of the sum insured per day, while ICU room rent is capped at 2 percent per day. The policy offers a cumulative bonus of 10 percent for every claim-free year, up to a maximum of 100 percent of the sum insured. Pre-hospitalisation expenses are covered for 30 days and post-hospitalisation expenses for 60 days. These figures are highly suitable for competitive examination questions. Students should remember that the policy is optional and retail in nature rather than being described as a replacement for CGHS. The source also separately mentions that the Department of Financial Services launched a Composite Salary Account Package for central government employees, combining banking and insurance benefits. For revision: Paripoorna Mediclaim Ayush Bima → Finance Ministry → CGHS beneficiaries → optional retail plan → New India Assurance → ₹10 lakh/₹20 lakh sum insured → 70:30 or 50:50 co-pay → 28%/42% discounts → room cap 1% normal, 2% ICU → 10% claim-free bonus up to 100% → 30-day pre + 60-day post hospitalisation. Therefore option B is correct.
Which of the following correctly matches the nutrient with its NBS rate for Rabi 2025-26 as given in the source?
Source के अनुसार Rabi 2025-26 के लिए nutrient और उसकी NBS rate का कौन-सा match सही है?A. Nitrogen — ₹43.02/kgB. Phosphorus — ₹2.38/kgC. Potassium — ₹47.96/kgD. Sulphur — ₹29.80/kg
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The correct answer is Nitrogen — ₹43.02 per kilogram. The source provides the nutrient-wise Nutrient-Based Subsidy rates for the Rabi 2025-26 season. Nitrogen is assigned ₹43.02 per kilogram, Phosphorus ₹47.96 per kilogram, Potassium ₹2.38 per kilogram and Sulphur ₹2.87 per kilogram. The options deliberately rearrange these figures, which is a common format in competitive examinations. Students should therefore learn the complete four-nutrient sequence rather than remembering only one rate. A useful memory sequence is N-P-K-S: 43.02, 47.96, 2.38 and 2.87 respectively. The rates are applicable from 1 October 2025 to 31 March 2026. The decision relates to the Rabi 2025-26 season and covers Phosphatic and Potassic fertilisers, including products such as DAP and NPKS grades. The source gives a budget allocation of ₹37,952.29 crore. It also states that the subsidy on DAP was increased to ₹29,805 per metric tonne. This DAP figure should not be confused with a per-kilogram nutrient subsidy rate because it is expressed per metric tonne and relates specifically to DAP. The NBS scheme was launched on 1 April 2010 and aims to promote balanced fertilisation and reduce excessive nitrogen use. According to the source, the scheme's coverage has expanded to 28 fertiliser types. For revision: Nitrogen 43.02; Phosphorus 47.96; Potassium 2.38; Sulphur 2.87; DAP 29,805 per metric tonne. Since only option A accurately reproduces one of these nutrient-rate pairings, option A is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme and the Rabi 2025-26 rates:
1. The NBS Scheme was launched on 1 April 2010.
2. It provides fixed subsidies on Phosphatic and Potassic fertilisers.
3. The Rabi 2025-26 rates apply from 1 October 2025 to 31 March 2026.
4. The budget allocation mentioned in the source is ₹37,952.29 crore.
5. The scheme seeks to promote balanced fertilisation and reduce excessive nitrogen use.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme तथा Rabi 2025-26 rates के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. NBS Scheme को 1 April 2010 को launch किया गया था।
2. इसके तहत Phosphatic और Potassic fertilisers पर fixed subsidies दी जाती हैं।
3. Rabi 2025-26 rates 1 October 2025 से 31 March 2026 तक applicable हैं।
4. Source में budget allocation ₹37,952.29 crore बताया गया है।
5. Scheme balanced fertilisation promote करने और excessive nitrogen use कम करने का प्रयास करती है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. The Nutrient-Based Subsidy Scheme was launched on 1 April 2010. It is structured around fixed subsidies on Phosphatic and Potassic fertilisers and is intended to promote balanced fertilisation while discouraging excessive use of nitrogen. Therefore statements 1, 2 and 5 are correct. For the Rabi 2025-26 season, the source states that the approved NBS rates are applicable from 1 October 2025 to 31 March 2026, making statement 3 correct. The decision concerns fertilisers such as DAP and NPKS grades. The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers took the decision, while implementation is associated with the Department of Fertilizers. A budget allocation of ₹37,952.29 crore is given in the source, so statement 4 is also correct. The source adds that the NBS framework now covers 28 fertiliser types. It also provides nutrient-specific rates for the Rabi season: ₹43.02/kg for Nitrogen, ₹47.96/kg for Phosphorus, ₹2.38/kg for Potassium and ₹2.87/kg for Sulphur. DAP subsidy is stated to have increased to ₹29,805 per metric tonne. These numerical details can produce direct, matching or statement-based questions. Students should particularly avoid assuming that the NBS scheme provides identical subsidy rates for every nutrient. Each nutrient has a distinct rate in the source. Another important distinction is that NBS is linked to P&K fertilisers even though a nitrogen rate is also provided as part of the nutrient-wise framework. For revision: launch 2010 → P&K fertilisers → balanced fertilisation → Rabi 2025-26 → Oct-Mar → ₹37,952.29 crore → 28 fertiliser types → nutrient-specific subsidy rates → DAP ₹29,805/MT. As every statement follows the source, option D is correct.
The Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) rates approved for Rabi 2025-26 are applicable for which period?
Rabi 2025-26 के लिए approved Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) rates किस अवधि के लिए applicable हैं?A. 1 April 2025 to 30 September 2025B. 1 October 2025 to 31 March 2026C. 1 January 2026 to 30 June 2026D. 1 July 2025 to 31 December 2025
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The correct answer is 1 October 2025 to 31 March 2026. According to the source, the Government of India approved Nutrient-Based Subsidy rates for the Rabi 2025-26 season for Phosphatic and Potassic fertilisers. The rates apply from 1 October 2025 through 31 March 2026. Fertilisers covered include products such as DAP and various NPKS grades. The source states that the decision was taken by the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers and implemented by the Department of Fertilizers, with a budget allocation of ₹37,952.29 crore. The NBS scheme itself was launched on 1 April 2010. Under the scheme, fixed subsidies are provided on P&K fertilisers. Its broader purpose is to promote balanced fertilisation and reduce excessive dependence on nitrogen. According to the source, coverage has expanded to 28 fertiliser types. The nutrient-wise subsidy rates given for Rabi 2025-26 are also highly examination-relevant: Nitrogen ₹43.02 per kilogram, Phosphorus ₹47.96 per kilogram, Potassium ₹2.38 per kilogram and Sulphur ₹2.87 per kilogram. The source additionally states that the subsidy on DAP was increased to ₹29,805 per metric tonne. Students should keep the season, applicability period, nutrient rates and ministry associations separate. A common examination trap could change the effective period to the calendar year or Kharif period. Here the exact source period is 1 October 2025 to 31 March 2026. For quick revision: NBS → Rabi 2025-26 → P&K fertilisers → effective 1 Oct 2025-31 Mar 2026 → Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers → Department of Fertilizers → ₹37,952.29 crore → scheme launched 1 Apr 2010 → balanced fertilisation → 28 fertiliser types → DAP subsidy ₹29,805/MT. Therefore option B is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Market Access Support (MAS) Scheme:
1. It has an outlay of ₹4,531 crore for FY26-31.
2. It was launched under the ₹25,060 crore Export Promotion Mission.
3. It focuses particularly on first-time exporters, MSMEs and priority sectors.
4. Agriculture, leather, handloom and toys are among the priority sectors mentioned in the source.
5. The scheme is specifically designed as a countermeasure to United States tariffs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Market Access Support (MAS) Scheme के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. FY26-31 के लिए इसका outlay ₹4,531 crore है।
2. इसे ₹25,060 crore के Export Promotion Mission के अंतर्गत launch किया गया।
3. इसका विशेष focus first-time exporters, MSMEs और priority sectors पर है।
4. Source में agriculture, leather, handloom और toys को priority sectors में शामिल किया गया है।
5. Scheme को विशेष रूप से United States tariffs के countermeasure के रूप में design किया गया है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The correct answer is statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 only. According to the source, the Government launched a ₹4,531 crore Market Access Support, or MAS, scheme for the FY26-31 period. Its purpose is to improve the global reach, visibility and competitiveness of Indian exporters. The programme pays particular attention to first-time exporters, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, and enterprises operating in priority sectors. The source specifically lists agriculture, leather, handloom and toys among these sectors. The MAS scheme forms part of the larger ₹25,060 crore Export Promotion Mission, which had been approved by the Union Cabinet. Therefore statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 5 is incorrect because the source explicitly clarifies that MAS is meant to address long-term challenges faced by exporters and is not intended as a countermeasure to United States tariffs. This distinction is examination-worthy because an export-support initiative launched during a period of tariff tensions can easily be misinterpreted as a short-term retaliatory measure. The source instead presents MAS as a structural export-promotion intervention. It also mentions ₹500 crore allocated for the current fiscal and ₹330 crore in arrears that are to be cleared at the earliest. Another important feature is diversification. MAS focuses on diversification of export products, markets and beneficiaries so that a wider range of firms can access support. For revision, remember: MAS → ₹4,531 crore → FY26-31 → Export Promotion Mission ₹25,060 crore → first-time exporters + MSMEs → agriculture, leather, handloom, toys → global reach, visibility and competitiveness → ₹500 crore current-year allocation → ₹330 crore arrears → product, market and beneficiary diversification → long-term exporter support → not a US-tariff countermeasure. Hence option B is correct.
The ₹4,531 crore Market Access Support (MAS) scheme launched for FY26-31 is a component of which larger mission?
FY26-31 के लिए launch की गई ₹4,531 crore Market Access Support (MAS) scheme किस larger mission का component है?A. Export Promotion MissionB. National Logistics MissionC. National Manufacturing MissionD. District Export Hub Mission
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The correct answer is the Export Promotion Mission. According to the source, the Government launched a ₹4,531 crore Market Access Support, or MAS, scheme for FY26-31 to enhance the global reach, visibility and competitiveness of Indian exporters. The scheme focuses particularly on first-time exporters, MSMEs and firms from priority sectors. The priority sectors identified in the source include agriculture, handloom, leather and toys. MAS was launched under the larger ₹25,060 crore Export Promotion Mission, which the source states had been approved by the Union Cabinet in November. This distinction between the ₹4,531 crore MAS component and the ₹25,060 crore overall Export Promotion Mission is important for examinations. The MAS scheme provides structured and outcome-oriented interventions designed to improve Indian exports' international reach and competitiveness. The source also notes an allocation of ₹500 crore for the current fiscal, with ₹330 crore of arrears to be cleared at the earliest. Another significant feature is diversification. MAS focuses on export-product diversification, market diversification and beneficiary diversification so that a larger number of exporters can access support. The source explicitly clarifies that the scheme is intended to address long-term challenges faced by exporters and is not designed as a countermeasure to US tariffs. This distinction can be particularly useful in statement-based questions. Revision chain: MAS → ₹4,531 crore → FY26-31 → Export Promotion Mission → ₹25,060 crore → first-time exporters + MSMEs → agriculture, leather, handloom, toys → global reach, visibility and competitiveness → ₹500 crore current fiscal → ₹330 crore arrears → product, market and beneficiary diversification → long-term exporter challenges → not a response to US tariffs. Therefore, the larger programme under which MAS was launched is the Export Promotion Mission, making option A correct.
According to the February 2026 current-affairs source, cumulative investment attracted under the PLI scheme for automobiles had reached approximately:
February 2026 current-affairs source के अनुसार automobiles के लिए PLI scheme के तहत cumulative investment लगभग कितना पहुँच चुका था?A. ₹26,000 croreB. ₹35,657 croreC. ₹25,060 croreD. ₹37,952.29 crore
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The correct answer is ₹35,657 crore. According to the source, the Production-Linked Incentive or PLI scheme for automobiles had attracted cumulative investment of ₹35,657 crore. The programme aims to enhance India's manufacturing capabilities in advanced automotive technology. The source separately states that the total budgetary outlay for the scheme is ₹26,000 crore and covers a five-year period from 2023-24 to 2027-28. This distinction is important: ₹26,000 crore refers to the scheme's budgetary outlay, while ₹35,657 crore refers to cumulative investment attracted. Competitive examinations frequently use such closely related figures as distractors. The source also provides information about the scale of incentives in electric mobility. Incentives have been provided for more than 10 lakh electric two-wheelers and 2.38 lakh electric three-wheelers. Around 80,000 electric four-wheelers and 1,400 electric buses have also received incentives. These figures show the scheme's connection with the expansion of India's electric-vehicle manufacturing ecosystem. The programme encourages domestic EV manufacturing, adoption of advanced technology and investment in green mobility. Thus, the PLI scheme is not merely a subsidy for vehicle purchase; in the source it is framed around strengthening manufacturing capabilities in advanced automotive technology and encouraging investment. For revision, remember: Automobile PLI → advanced automotive technology → budgetary outlay ₹26,000 crore → five years, 2023-24 to 2027-28 → cumulative investment ₹35,657 crore → incentives for 10 lakh+ e-two-wheelers → 2.38 lakh e-three-wheelers → about 80,000 e-four-wheelers → 1,400 e-buses → domestic EV manufacturing and green mobility. Therefore the investment figure asked in the question is ₹35,657 crore, making option B correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY):
1. It was launched on 1 January 2017.
2. It is a Centrally Sponsored flagship scheme under the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
3. It provides ₹5,000 for the first child.
4. It provides ₹6,000 for the second girl child.
5. According to the source, total enrolment has crossed 4.5 crore women and more than ₹19,000 crore has been disbursed since inception.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. इसे 1 January 2017 को launch किया गया था।
2. यह Ministry of Women & Child Development के under Centrally Sponsored flagship scheme है।
3. यह first child के लिए ₹5,000 प्रदान करती है।
4. यह second girl child के लिए ₹6,000 प्रदान करती है।
5. Source के अनुसार total enrolment 4.5 crore women से अधिक हो चुका है और inception से ₹19,000 crore से अधिक disburse किया गया है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana was launched on 1 January 2017 and completed nine years of implementation on 1 January 2026. The scheme is described as a Centrally Sponsored flagship programme under the Ministry of Women & Child Development. Its broad objective is to improve maternal health and nutrition through direct financial assistance, particularly for socially and economically disadvantaged women. The benefit structure provided in the source is important. PMMVY provides ₹5,000 for the first child and ₹6,000 for the second girl child. The latter provision is associated with promoting support for the girl child. The source also states that ₹3,000 is paid at pregnancy registration and ₹2,000 after childbirth as the two main instalments associated with the first-child cash benefit. Beneficiaries can additionally receive incentives under Janani Suraksha Yojana. The scale of the programme is substantial: total enrolment has reached more than 4.5 crore women, while over ₹19,000 crore has been disbursed since inception to support needs including checkups, medicines and nutrition. These figures are particularly suitable for statement-based examination questions. Students should remember: 2017 launch, 2026 ninth anniversary, Ministry of Women & Child Development, ₹5,000 first child, ₹6,000 second girl child, 4.5 crore+ enrolment and ₹19,000 crore+ disbursement. Another useful distinction is that PMMVY is described in the source as Centrally Sponsored. Every statement in this question reproduces information explicitly provided in the material. Therefore statements 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are all correct, making option D the correct answer.
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) completed nine years of implementation on which date?
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) ने implementation के nine years किस date को complete किए?A. 1 January 2026B. 8 March 2026C. 26 January 2026D. 1 April 2026
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The correct answer is 1 January 2026. According to the source, Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana, abbreviated PMMVY, completed nine years of implementation on 1 January 2026. The scheme was launched on 1 January 2017 and is intended to improve maternal health and nutrition through direct financial support. The source describes PMMVY as a Centrally Sponsored flagship scheme under the Ministry of Women & Child Development, targeting socially and economically disadvantaged women. Its benefit structure is important for examinations. The source states that ₹5,000 is provided for the first child and ₹6,000 for the second girl child, with the latter provision helping promote support for the girl child. For the ₹5,000 benefit, two main instalments mentioned are ₹3,000 at pregnancy registration and ₹2,000 after childbirth. Beneficiaries also receive incentives under Janani Suraksha Yojana in addition to PMMVY benefits. The scale of implementation is another major current-affairs component. According to the source, total enrolment has crossed 4.5 crore women and more than ₹19,000 crore has been disbursed since the scheme's inception. The support is associated with needs such as checkups, medicine and nutrition. Students should remember the chronological connection: launched 1 January 2017 → nine years completed 1 January 2026. The ministry association is Ministry of Women & Child Development. Revision chain: PMMVY → Centrally Sponsored flagship scheme → maternal health and nutrition → disadvantaged women → ₹5,000 first child → ₹6,000 second girl child → ₹3,000 pregnancy registration + ₹2,000 after childbirth → JSY incentives additionally → 4.5 crore+ enrolment → ₹19,000+ crore disbursed. Since the question asks the ninth-anniversary date, option A is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding PM-YUVA 3.0:
1. The Ministry of Education announced the selection of 43 book proposals.
2. The proposals cover 22 Indian languages plus English.
3. Selected authors receive six months of mentorship under eminent scholars.
4. Selected authors receive a ₹50,000 per month scholarship and 10% lifetime royalty on their published books.
5. The first set of mentored books is to be published in 2026.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
PM-YUVA 3.0 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. Ministry of Education ने 43 book proposals के selection की घोषणा की।
2. Proposals 22 Indian languages plus English को cover करते हैं।
3. Selected authors को eminent scholars के under six months mentorship मिलती है।
4. Selected authors को ₹50,000 per month scholarship और published books पर 10% lifetime royalty मिलती है।
5. Mentored books का first set 2026 में publish किया जाना है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. PM-YUVA 3.0 is the Prime Minister's Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors. The Ministry of Education announced the selection of 43 book proposals under the programme. These proposals span 22 Indian languages plus English. The selected young authors are to receive six months of mentorship under eminent scholars. In addition, the source specifies a scholarship of ₹50,000 per month and a 10 percent lifetime royalty on their published books. The first set of books developed under the mentorship is expected to be published in 2026. Therefore statements 1 through 5 are all directly supported by the source. The broader objective is to nurture a new generation of writers capable of showcasing India's literature and ideas globally. The source also provides a static background point: PM-YUVA was launched in 2021 by the Ministry of Education to mentor young writers under experienced guides. Students should pay close attention to the numerical information. 43 refers to the selected book proposals; 22 refers to Indian languages, with English additionally included; six months refers to mentorship duration; ₹50,000 is the monthly scholarship; and 10 percent refers to lifetime royalty on published books. Mixing these figures is an easy way for an examination to create incorrect statements. It is also useful to contrast this programme with the SHAKTI Scholars fellowship: SHAKTI offers a ₹1 lakh research grant for a six-month study, while PM-YUVA 3.0 offers ₹50,000 per month during mentorship plus lifetime royalty. Revision chain: Ministry of Education → PM-YUVA 3.0 → 43 proposals → 22 Indian languages + English → six months → eminent scholars → ₹50,000/month → 10% lifetime royalty → books in 2026 → promote Indian literature globally. Therefore option D is correct.
Under PM-YUVA 3.0, how many book proposals were selected according to the February 2026 current-affairs source?
February 2026 current-affairs source के अनुसार PM-YUVA 3.0 के तहत कितने book proposals select किए गए?A. 25B. 35C. 43D. 50
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The correct answer is 43. According to the source, the Ministry of Education announced the results of PM-YUVA 3.0 and selected 43 book proposals. The proposals cover 22 Indian languages plus English. PM-YUVA stands for the Prime Minister's Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors, and the source identifies this edition as PM-YUVA 3.0. Selected young authors will receive mentorship for six months under eminent scholars. They will also receive a scholarship of ₹50,000 per month and a 10 percent lifetime royalty on their published books. These three details—six-month mentorship, ₹50,000 monthly scholarship and 10 percent lifetime royalty—are particularly important for competitive examinations because they may appear together in statement-based questions. The objective of the programme is to nurture a new generation of writers and promote India's literature and ideas globally. According to the source, the first set of books produced under this mentorship is to be published in 2026. The static information included in the source states that PM-YUVA was launched in 2021 by the Ministry of Education, with the aim of mentoring young writers under experienced guides. Students should distinguish the number of proposals from the number of languages. The source says 43 proposals, covering 22 Indian languages plus English. Therefore 22 should not be mistaken for the number of selected authors or proposals. Similarly, the ₹50,000 amount is a monthly scholarship, unlike the ₹1 lakh research grant mentioned for the SHAKTI Scholars fellowship. Revision chain: PM-YUVA 3.0 → Ministry of Education → 43 book proposals → 22 Indian languages + English → six-month mentorship → ₹50,000/month → 10% lifetime royalty → first mentored books in 2026 → scheme originally launched in 2021. Hence option C, 43, is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the REPM manufacturing scheme:
1. It aims to build India's first integrated domestic manufacturing ecosystem for high-value magnets.
2. The scheme targets an annual production capacity of 6,000 MT.
3. Its value chain extends from rare-earth oxides to finished magnets.
4. The Ministry of Mines signed bilateral mineral cooperation agreements with Australia, Argentina and Zambia.
5. The initiative seeks to reduce import dependence and support sectors such as EVs, renewables, aerospace, defence and electronics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
REPM manufacturing scheme के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. इसका उद्देश्य high-value magnets के लिए India का first integrated domestic manufacturing ecosystem बनाना है।
2. Scheme में 6,000 MT annual production capacity target की गई है।
3. इसकी value chain rare-earth oxides से finished magnets तक विस्तृत है।
4. Ministry of Mines ने Australia, Argentina और Zambia के साथ bilateral mineral cooperation agreements किए हैं।
5. Initiative import dependence कम करने तथा EVs, renewables, aerospace, defence और electronics जैसे sectors को support करने का प्रयास करती है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. The Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets is designed to establish India's first integrated domestic manufacturing ecosystem for high-value magnets. The Government approved more than ₹7,000 crore for this initiative. The targeted production capacity is 6,000 metric tonnes per year, and the source specifically states that the scheme covers the complete value chain from rare-earth oxides to finished magnets. Thus statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The source also highlights the supply-chain dimension of the policy. The Ministry of Mines signed bilateral mineral cooperation agreements with Australia, Argentina and Zambia. These international arrangements are intended to help secure mineral supply chains, making statement 4 correct. The scheme also has a strategic industrial objective. It seeks to reduce India's import dependence, particularly dependence on China, while supporting electric vehicles, renewable energy, aerospace, defence and electronics. It is additionally associated with energy transition, employment generation, Atmanirbhar Bharat and the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision. Therefore statement 5 is correct. The source also identifies Indian states possessing significant rare-earth reserves: Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Gujarat and Maharashtra. Such minerals are reported mainly in beach sands, red sands and alluvium. For revision, remember: ₹7,000+ crore → 6,000 MT/year → full value chain → rare-earth oxides to magnets → Australia, Argentina, Zambia → lower import dependence → EVs, renewables, aerospace, defence, electronics. Competitive exams may change one partner country, production capacity or value-chain endpoint to create an incorrect statement. In this question, however, every statement follows the source. Therefore statements 1 through 5 are correct and option D is the answer.
What annual production capacity is targeted under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (REPM)?
Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (REPM) के तहत कितनी annual production capacity target की गई है?A. 2,000 MT per yearB. 4,000 MT per yearC. 6,000 MT per yearD. 10,000 MT per year
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The correct answer is 6,000 MT per year. According to the source, the Government approved more than ₹7,000 crore under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets, abbreviated as REPM. The scheme is intended to establish India's first integrated domestic manufacturing ecosystem for high-value magnets. Its targeted production capacity is 6,000 metric tonnes per year across the complete value chain, extending from rare-earth oxides to finished magnets. This full-value-chain approach is a significant feature because the objective is not merely to assemble finished magnets but to strengthen domestic capability from raw or intermediate rare-earth materials through final manufacturing. The source notes that India possesses significant rare-earth mineral reserves across both coastal and inland regions. States mentioned include Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Gujarat and Maharashtra. These resources occur mainly in beach sands, red sands and alluvium. The Ministry of Mines has also signed bilateral mineral cooperation agreements with Australia, Argentina and Zambia to strengthen and secure supply chains. The broader strategic objectives of the REPM initiative include reducing import dependence, especially dependence on China, and supporting sectors such as electric vehicles, renewable energy, aerospace, defence and electronics. It is also intended to support India's energy transition, create employment and advance the visions of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047. For examination preparation, remember the chain: REPM → sintered rare earth permanent magnets → ₹7,000+ crore → first integrated domestic magnet manufacturing ecosystem → 6,000 MT/year → rare-earth oxides to finished magnets → supply cooperation with Australia, Argentina and Zambia → strategic sectors EVs, renewables, aerospace, defence and electronics. Therefore, the targeted annual capacity is 6,000 MT and option C is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding 'SHAKTI Scholars: NCW’s Young Research Fellowship':
1. It has been initiated by the National Commission for Women.
2. It is open to young students and researchers aged 21-30 years.
3. A minimum bachelor's degree is required.
4. Selected scholars receive a research grant of ₹1 lakh for a six-month study.
5. Research areas include cyber safety, access to justice, health and nutrition, and economic empowerment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
'SHAKTI Scholars: NCW’s Young Research Fellowship' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. इसे National Commission for Women द्वारा शुरू किया गया है।
2. यह 21-30 years age group के young students और researchers के लिए है।
3. Minimum bachelor's degree आवश्यक है।
4. Selected scholars को six-month study के लिए ₹1 lakh research grant मिलता है।
5. Research areas में cyber safety, access to justice, health and nutrition तथा economic empowerment शामिल हैं।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. The National Commission for Women initiated 'SHAKTI Scholars: NCW’s Young Research Fellowship' to encourage policy-oriented research on women-centric issues in India. The source clearly defines the target group as young students and researchers aged between 21 and 30 years. It also specifies a minimum educational qualification of a bachelor's degree. Therefore, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The financial and duration components are equally important. Selected scholars receive a research grant of ₹1 lakh for a study lasting six months, making statement 4 correct. Students should not confuse this with PM-YUVA 3.0, where the source separately mentions a ₹50,000 per month scholarship and a six-month mentorship. In SHAKTI Scholars, the source specifically describes ₹1 lakh as a research grant for the six-month study. The programme covers a wide range of policy-oriented research areas. These include women's safety and dignity, gender-based violence, legal rights, access to justice, cyber safety, health and nutrition, and economic empowerment. Thus statement 5 is also correct. From an examination perspective, this current-affairs item can generate questions about the implementing body, age eligibility, minimum qualification, grant amount, study duration and research themes. A useful revision sequence is: NCW → SHAKTI Scholars → Young Research Fellowship → policy-oriented women-centric research → age 21-30 → bachelor's degree minimum → six months → ₹1 lakh grant. Research themes → safety and dignity → gender-based violence → legal rights → access to justice → cyber safety → health and nutrition → economic empowerment. Since every statement corresponds directly to information provided in the source, statements 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct. Hence option D is the correct answer.
The National Commission for Women launched the 'SHAKTI Scholars' fellowship primarily for which purpose?
National Commission for Women द्वारा 'SHAKTI Scholars' fellowship मुख्य रूप से किस उद्देश्य से शुरू की गई?A. To support policy-oriented research on women-centric issuesB. To provide overseas employment to women graduatesC. To finance women-owned manufacturing enterprisesD. To provide sports scholarships to women athletes
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The correct answer is to support policy-oriented research on women-centric issues. According to the source, the National Commission for Women (NCW) initiated a programme titled 'SHAKTI Scholars: NCW’s Young Research Fellowship'. The fellowship is intended for young students and researchers who want to undertake policy-oriented research on issues concerning women in India. The eligibility details given in the source are particularly important for competitive examinations. Applicants should be between 21 and 30 years of age and should possess at least a bachelor's degree. The fellowship is therefore designed as a research-oriented programme rather than an employment, entrepreneurship or sports-support scheme. The source identifies several areas in which research may be conducted. These include women's safety and dignity, gender-based violence, legal rights, access to justice, cyber safety, health and nutrition, and economic empowerment. These themes show that the fellowship has a broad policy orientation covering legal, social, digital, health and economic dimensions of women's welfare. Selected scholars are to receive a research grant of ₹1 lakh for a six-month study. Students should carefully distinguish the total grant from the duration: ₹1 lakh is the research grant and six months is the study period. The source does not describe it as a monthly scholarship of ₹1 lakh. For examination revision, remember the complete chain: National Commission for Women → SHAKTI Scholars → Young Research Fellowship → age 21-30 → minimum bachelor's degree → policy-oriented women-centric research → ₹1 lakh research grant → six-month study. Research areas include safety, dignity, gender-based violence, legal rights, access to justice, cyber safety, health, nutrition and economic empowerment. Therefore, the programme's principal purpose is to promote policy-oriented research on women-centric issues, making option A correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Ilaiyaraaja's Padmapani Award:
1. He was selected for the Padmapani Award at the 11th Ajanta-Ellora International Film Festival.
2. The award includes a Padmapani memento, citation certificate and ₹2 lakh cash prize.
3. The festival was scheduled from January 28 to February 1.
4. The venue was Mahatma Gandhi Mission, Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar.
5. The award recognises excellence and lifetime contribution to Indian cinema.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Ilaiyaraaja के Padmapani Award के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. उन्हें 11th Ajanta-Ellora International Film Festival में Padmapani Award के लिए selected किया गया।
2. Award में Padmapani memento, citation certificate और ₹2 lakh cash prize शामिल हैं।
3. Festival January 28 से February 1 तक scheduled था।
4. Venue Mahatma Gandhi Mission, Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar था।
5. Award Indian cinema में excellence और lifetime contribution को recognise करता है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. Veteran music composer Ilaiyaraaja was awarded the Padmapani Award at the 11th Ajanta-Ellora International Film Festival. The award package contains a Padmapani memento, a citation certificate and a cash prize of ₹2 lakh. The festival was scheduled to run from January 28 to February 1 at Mahatma Gandhi Mission in Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar. The source explains that the award recognises excellence and lifetime contribution to Indian cinema and is intended to inspire upcoming artists and filmmakers. The institutional framework surrounding the festival is also important. It was organised with support from the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, Government of India, and the Department of Cultural Affairs, Maharashtra. It was co-presented by the National Film Development Corporation and the Maharashtra Film, Stage & Cultural Development Corporation. Students should distinguish between the award name, festival name and supporting organisations. Padmapani is the award; Ajanta-Ellora International Film Festival is the event; Mahatma Gandhi Mission in Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar is the venue. The cash component is ₹2 lakh according to the source. Objective questions can alter this amount or change the venue to create an incorrect statement. Another potential trap is the edition number: this was the 11th Ajanta-Ellora International Film Festival. Quick revision: Ilaiyaraaja → Padmapani Award → 11th AEIFF → memento + citation + ₹2 lakh → Jan 28-Feb 1 → Mahatma Gandhi Mission → Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar → lifetime contribution to Indian cinema → Ministry of I&B + Maharashtra Cultural Affairs → NFDC and Maharashtra Film, Stage & Cultural Development Corporation. Since statements 1 through 5 accurately reproduce the source, all are correct. Therefore option D is the answer.
Veteran music composer Ilaiyaraaja was selected for which award at the 11th Ajanta-Ellora International Film Festival?
Veteran music composer Ilaiyaraaja को 11th Ajanta-Ellora International Film Festival में किस award के लिए selected किया गया?A. Padmapani AwardB. Satyajit Ray AwardC. Golden Lotus AwardD. Dadasaheb Phalke Award
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The correct answer is the Padmapani Award. According to the source, veteran music composer Ilaiyaraaja was awarded the Padmapani Award at the 11th Ajanta-Ellora International Film Festival. The honour recognises excellence and lifetime contribution to Indian cinema and is intended to inspire upcoming artists and filmmakers. The award package consists of a Padmapani memento, a citation certificate and a cash prize of ₹2 lakh. These components are useful for objective examination questions because the amount and associated items can be tested independently. The festival was scheduled from January 28 to February 1 at Mahatma Gandhi Mission in Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar. The source further provides organisational details. The festival was organised with support from the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, Government of India, and the Department of Cultural Affairs, Maharashtra. It was co-presented by the National Film Development Corporation, abbreviated NFDC, and the Maharashtra Film, Stage & Cultural Development Corporation. Students should therefore remember both the award recipient and the institutional context. Revision chain: Ilaiyaraaja → veteran music composer → Padmapani Award → 11th Ajanta-Ellora International Film Festival → ₹2 lakh + Padmapani memento + citation → January 28-February 1 → Mahatma Gandhi Mission → Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar → support from Ministry of I&B and Maharashtra Department of Cultural Affairs → co-presented by NFDC and Maharashtra Film, Stage & Cultural Development Corporation. The award is specifically linked in the source with excellence and lifetime contribution to Indian cinema. It should not be confused with other prominent Indian cinema awards such as the Dadasaheb Phalke Award or National Film Awards. Since the question asks for the honour Ilaiyaraaja received at the 11th Ajanta-Ellora International Film Festival, the correct answer is the Padmapani Award, option A.
Karnataka Bank won which category at the IBA Banking Technology Awards?
Karnataka Bank ने IBA Banking Technology Awards में कौन-सी category जीती?A. Best Fintech & DPI AdoptionB. Best Tech TalentC. Best Technology BankD. Best Digital Sales
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The correct answer is 'Best Fintech & DPI Adoption'. According to the source, Karnataka Bank won the Best Fintech & DPI Adoption category at the IBA Banking Technology Awards. The source provides additional distinctions that are important because several award categories are mentioned together. Karnataka Bank was the runner-up in the Best Tech Talent category. It also received Special Mentions in three categories: Best Technology Bank, Best Digital Financial Inclusion and Best Digital Sales. Therefore, students must distinguish among 'winner', 'runner-up' and 'special mention'. Winner → Best Fintech & DPI Adoption. Runner-up → Best Tech Talent. Special Mentions → Best Technology Bank, Best Digital Financial Inclusion and Best Digital Sales. The source quotes Raghavendra S Bhat, Managing Director and CEO, as highlighting the recognition as the result of teamwork in digital innovation and customer-centric solutions. It also states that the bank remains committed to enhancing its digital capabilities and meeting evolving customer needs through technology-driven initiatives. From an examination perspective, the abbreviation DPI can appear directly in the category title, and students should preserve the exact category wording given by the source. A common objective-question trap would be to ask which category Karnataka Bank 'won' and offer Best Tech Talent or Best Digital Sales as alternatives. Those categories were associated with different levels of recognition: Best Tech Talent was runner-up, and Best Digital Sales was a Special Mention. The central memory structure should therefore be: Karnataka Bank → IBA Banking Technology Awards → Winner: Best Fintech & DPI Adoption → Runner-up: Best Tech Talent → Special Mentions: Best Technology Bank + Best Digital Financial Inclusion + Best Digital Sales → MD & CEO Raghavendra S Bhat. Since the question asks specifically for the winning category, Best Fintech & DPI Adoption, option A, is correct.
