2026 Current Affairs
QUESTION 81Consider the following statements regarding the Under-19 Asia Cup final mentioned in the source:
1. Pakistan defeated India by 191 runs.
2. Pakistan scored 347/8 in 50 overs.
3. India was bowled out for 156 in 26.2 overs.
4. Sameer Minhas scored 172 runs off 113 balls.
5. Sameer Minhas was named both Player of the Match and Player of the Tournament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Source में उल्लिखित Under-19 Asia Cup final के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. Pakistan ने India को 191 runs से हराया।
2. Pakistan ने 50 overs में 347/8 बनाए।
3. India 26.2 overs में 156 runs पर all out हुआ।
4. Sameer Minhas ने 113 balls पर 172 runs बनाए।
5. Sameer Minhas को Player of the Match और Player of the Tournament दोनों चुना गया।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. Pakistan won the Under-19 Asia Cup final against India by a massive margin of 191 runs in Dubai. Pakistan batted first and posted 347 runs for eight wickets in its allotted 50 overs. Sameer Minhas was the central figure in the innings, scoring 172 runs from 113 balls. India therefore required 348 runs to win. However, the chase collapsed and India was dismissed for 156 in 26.2 overs, resulting in Pakistan's 191-run victory. The source gives special importance to Sameer Minhas's innings because his 172 was described as the highest individual score for Pakistan as well as the highest individual score in a Youth ODI final. His performance was recognised not only for the final but across the tournament: he received both the Player of the Match award and the Player of the Tournament award. These details are highly suitable for competitive-exam questions because they combine match result, team score, individual performance and record. Students should be careful about the distinction between Pakistan's score of 347 and India's target of 348. Similarly, 172 was Minhas's individual score, while 191 was Pakistan's victory margin. A common objective-question trap could interchange these numbers. Another important fact is that Minhas faced 113 deliveries. The source places the final in Dubai. Thus, the complete revision sequence is: Pakistan 347/8 → India target 348 → India 156 all out in 26.2 overs → Pakistan won by 191 runs → Sameer Minhas 172 off 113 → highest individual score for Pakistan and highest in Youth ODI final → Player of the Match and Player of the Tournament. Since statements 1 through 5 all accurately reproduce these source facts, option D is correct.
Who was named both Player of the Match and Player of the Tournament after Pakistan defeated India in the Under-19 Asia Cup final mentioned in the source?
Source में उल्लिखित Under-19 Asia Cup final में Pakistan द्वारा India को हराने के बाद किस player को Player of the Match और Player of the Tournament दोनों चुना गया?A. Sameer MinhasB. Arjun BabutaC. Vidit GujrathiD. Rithvik Sanjeevi S
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The correct answer is Sameer Minhas. According to the source, Pakistan's Under-19 cricket team defeated India by 191 runs in the final in Dubai to lift the Under-19 Asia Cup title. Pakistan, batting first, scored 347 runs for the loss of eight wickets in the stipulated 50 overs. Sameer Minhas played the decisive innings, scoring 172 runs from 113 balls. His performance provided the foundation for Pakistan's large total and ultimately its dominant victory. India was set a target of 348 runs but was bowled out for 156 in 26.2 overs. The difference between Pakistan's total and India's score produced a 191-run victory margin. The source highlights the significance of Minhas's 172 by stating that it was the highest individual score for Pakistan and also the highest score in a Youth ODI final. His impact was recognised with both major individual awards: Player of the Match and Player of the Tournament. This makes Sameer Minhas particularly important from the examination point of view because questions may ask about his score, number of balls, award, record or the match result. Students should keep the numerical facts separately organised: Pakistan → 347/8 in 50 overs; target for India → 348; India → 156 all out in 26.2 overs; victory margin → 191 runs; Sameer Minhas → 172 off 113 balls; venue mentioned → Dubai. The source describes his innings as leading Pakistan to a dominant victory. For quick revision, remember the chain: U19 Asia Cup final → Pakistan defeated India → Dubai → 191 runs → Sameer Minhas 172 off 113 → highest individual score for Pakistan and highest in a Youth ODI final → Player of the Match + Player of the Tournament. Therefore, option A is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Pro Wrestling League's 2026 season:
1. It marked the league's return after a seven-year break.
2. The 2026 season was the fifth season of the league.
3. The new logo was inspired by the traditional red-and-blue wrestling mat.
4. The logo symbolises strength, balance and competitive spirit.
5. Akhil Gupta is mentioned in the source as the CEO of PWL.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Pro Wrestling League के 2026 season के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. League ने सात वर्ष के break के बाद वापसी की।
2. 2026 season league का fifth season था।
3. नया logo traditional red-and-blue wrestling mat से inspired था।
4. Logo strength, balance और competitive spirit को symbolise करता है।
5. Source में Akhil Gupta को PWL का CEO बताया गया है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. The Pro Wrestling League's 2026 return is noteworthy because it resumed after a seven-year break. The source identifies the upcoming competition as the fifth season of PWL and states that its return took place in January 2026. The league is sanctioned by the Wrestling Federation of India. Ahead of the season, PWL revealed a redesigned official logo as part of a broader reset of its identity and operations. The source describes this emblem as being inspired by the traditional red-and-blue wrestling mat. Those colours and the design are presented as symbols of strength, balance and competitive spirit. The logo is therefore not described merely as a cosmetic branding exercise; it accompanies a significant structural and operational overhaul under new ownership and management. The source states that the renewed mission of PWL is to provide a world-class professional platform for wrestlers and connect grassroots training with global competition. This is an important point because the league seeks to establish a pathway from the developmental level to elite professional exposure. Akhil Gupta is identified as the CEO of PWL in the source. His comments connect the new logo with a vision for a modern, aggressive and world-class professional wrestling league. For exam preparation, multiple direct questions can be generated from this single entry: sanctioning body → Wrestling Federation of India; season → fifth; break → seven years; return → January 2026; logo inspiration → red-and-blue wrestling mat; symbolism → strength, balance and competitive spirit; CEO → Akhil Gupta. Statement-based questions can easily alter one of these details, such as changing the break to five years or calling it the sixth season. In the present question, however, all five statements reproduce the source correctly. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
The Pro Wrestling League unveiled a new official logo ahead of its 2026 season. The league is sanctioned by which organisation?
Pro Wrestling League ने 2026 season से पहले नया official logo unveil किया। यह league किस organisation द्वारा sanctioned है?A. Indian Olympic AssociationB. Wrestling Federation of IndiaC. Sports Authority of IndiaD. United World Wrestling
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The correct answer is the Wrestling Federation of India, or WFI. According to the February 2026 current affairs source, the Pro Wrestling League, abbreviated as PWL, unveiled a new official logo ahead of its fifth season. The league is sanctioned by the Wrestling Federation of India. The development was significant because the 2026 season marked the return of the Pro Wrestling League in January 2026 after a seven-year break. Therefore, the current-affairs item is not merely about a logo change; it represents the relaunch and restructuring of the professional wrestling competition. The source describes the new logo as a modern and dynamic emblem inspired by the traditional red-and-blue wrestling mat. It is intended to symbolise strength, balance and competitive spirit. The new visual identity represents what the source calls a complete reset for the PWL after a significant structural and operational overhaul under new ownership and management. The league's renewed mission is to provide wrestlers with a world-class professional platform and to connect grassroots training with global competition. This grassroots-to-global linkage is an important conceptual point because professional leagues can serve as a bridge between domestic talent development and higher-level competitive exposure. The source quotes Akhil Gupta, CEO of PWL, in connection with the new identity. According to the source, the logo reflects the vision of a modern, aggressive and world-class Pro Wrestling League. For examinations, remember the cluster: Pro Wrestling League → PWL → Wrestling Federation of India → fifth season → return in January 2026 → seven-year break → new logo inspired by red-and-blue wrestling mat → structural and operational overhaul → CEO Akhil Gupta. The question asks specifically about the sanctioning body, so Wrestling Federation of India, option B, is correct.
Consider the following pairs regarding winners at the National Shooting Championship Competitions:
1. Kiran Ankush Jadhav — 10m Air Rifle Men Gold
2. Mohammed Murtaza Vania — 10m Air Rifle Men Junior Gold
3. Onkar Vikas Waghamare — 10m Air Rifle Men Youth Gold
4. Mandeep Singh — 25m Pistol Men Senior Gold
5. Addya Katyal — Youth Women Trap Gold
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
National Shooting Championship Competitions के winners के संबंध में निम्नलिखित pairs पर विचार कीजिए:
1. Kiran Ankush Jadhav — 10m Air Rifle Men Gold
2. Mohammed Murtaza Vania — 10m Air Rifle Men Junior Gold
3. Onkar Vikas Waghamare — 10m Air Rifle Men Youth Gold
4. Mandeep Singh — 25m Pistol Men Senior Gold
5. Addya Katyal — Youth Women Trap Gold
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से pairs correctly matched हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
The correct answer is option D because all five pairs are correctly matched according to the source. The National Shooting Championship Competitions current-affairs entry contains several winners across senior, junior, youth, rifle, pistol and trap categories. First, Kiran Ankush Jadhav of the Navy won the gold medal in the 10m Air Rifle Men final. In the same senior event, Arjun Babuta secured silver and Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar won bronze. Second, Mohammed Murtaza Vania of Gujarat won gold in the 10m Air Rifle Men Junior final. Students should carefully distinguish this junior title from Kiran Ankush Jadhav's senior men's gold. Third, Onkar Vikas Waghamare won gold in the 10m Air Rifle Men Youth final. Thus, the source effectively gives three different 10m Air Rifle Men's category winners: Kiran Ankush Jadhav in the senior final, Mohammed Murtaza Vania in the junior final and Onkar Vikas Waghamare in the youth final. Fourth, Mandeep Singh won the gold medal in the 25m Pistol Men Senior category. This event should not be confused with the air-rifle categories because both the shooting discipline and distance differ. Fifth, Addya Katyal of Delhi won gold in the Youth Women Trap event. The source also mentions Aryan Singh of Gujarat as the winner of the Youth Men Trap title. These facts create useful pair-matching questions for examinations. A quick revision chart can be memorised mentally as follows: Kiran → 10m Air Rifle Men; Murtaza → 10m Junior; Onkar → 10m Youth; Mandeep → 25m Pistol Senior; Aryan Singh → Youth Men Trap; Addya Katyal → Youth Women Trap. Since every one of the five pairs in the question accurately reflects the source, all five are correct and option D is the answer.
Who won the gold medal in the 10m Air Rifle Men final at the National Shooting Championship Competitions mentioned in the February 2026 current affairs source?
February 2026 current affairs source में उल्लिखित National Shooting Championship Competitions के 10m Air Rifle Men final में gold medal किसने जीता?A. Arjun BabutaB. Aishwary Pratap Singh TomarC. Kiran Ankush JadhavD. Mohammed Murtaza Vania
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The correct answer is Kiran Ankush Jadhav. According to the February 2026 current affairs source, Kiran Ankush Jadhav, representing the Navy, won the gold medal in the 10m Air Rifle Men final at the National Shooting Championship Competitions. This event is important for competitive examinations because the same current-affairs entry contains several medal winners across different shooting categories, making it easy to confuse one athlete with another. In the senior men's 10m Air Rifle final, Kiran Ankush Jadhav secured gold, while Arjun Babuta won the silver medal and Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar took bronze. Therefore, the correct medal sequence for this particular event is Kiran Ankush Jadhav — Gold; Arjun Babuta — Silver; Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar — Bronze. The source separately states that Mohammed Murtaza Vania of Gujarat won the gold medal in the 10m Air Rifle Men Junior final. This distinction between the senior men's event and the junior men's event is particularly important. The same championship also featured other winners: Onkar Vikas Waghamare won gold in the 10m Air Rifle Men Youth final; Mandeep Singh won gold in the 25m Pistol Men Senior category; Aryan Singh of Gujarat won the Youth Men Trap title; and Addya Katyal of Delhi won gold in the Youth Women Trap event. Thus, a single current-affairs item provides several athlete-event combinations that can be asked in SSC, Railway, Banking and other competitive examinations. For quick revision, remember: Kiran Ankush Jadhav → Navy → 10m Air Rifle Men → Gold. Arjun Babuta → Silver. Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar → Bronze. Mohammed Murtaza Vania → Junior Gold. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
According to Swiss Re, India's insurance market is projected to grow at what real CAGR during 2026-30?
Swiss Re के अनुसार 2026-30 के दौरान India का insurance market real terms में किस CAGR से grow करने का projection है?A. 3.1%B. 5.5%C. 6.9%D. 8.4%
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The correct answer is 6.9 percent. According to the source, Swiss Re projects India's insurance market to expand at a compound annual growth rate of 6.9 percent in real terms during 2026-30. This forecast follows comparatively slower growth of 3.1 percent in 2025, which the source attributes to regulatory adjustments. The distinction between the 3.1 percent figure and the 6.9 percent figure is important for examinations. The former refers to growth in 2025, whereas the latter is the projected real CAGR over the 2026-30 period. The source identifies policy and regulatory reforms as important drivers that could accelerate future growth. These include GST exemption on life and health insurance and an increase in the FDI cap to 100 percent. According to the source, these reforms are expected to enhance transparency, attract capital, expand access and accelerate insurance-sector growth. Increasing the availability of capital can potentially help insurers expand their operations, while wider access can support greater insurance penetration. The mention of life and health insurance is particularly important because the GST-related measure cited in the source is specifically associated with those categories. Swiss Re is the institution making the market-growth projection in this current-affairs item. Students should therefore remember both the organisation and the numerical forecast. The core examination chain is: Swiss Re → India insurance market → 6.9% real CAGR → 2026-30 → compared with 3.1% growth in 2025 → reforms cited: GST exemption on life and health insurance + FDI cap increase to 100% → expected effects: transparency, capital inflow, access and growth. Since the question asks for the projected real CAGR during 2026-30, 6.9 percent, option C, is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the World Bank's Global Economic Prospects projections mentioned in the source:
1. Global GDP growth for 2026 is projected at 2.6%.
2. Global GDP growth for 2027 is projected at 2.7%.
3. India's GDP growth for FY2025-26 is forecast at 7.2%.
4. India's GDP growth for FY2026-27 is projected at 6.5%.
5. India's GDP growth for FY2027-28 is projected at 6.6%.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Source में दिए गए World Bank Global Economic Prospects projections के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. 2026 के लिए global GDP growth 2.6% projected है।
2. 2027 के लिए global GDP growth 2.7% projected है।
3. FY2025-26 में India की GDP growth 7.2% forecast है।
4. FY2026-27 में India की GDP growth 6.5% projected है।
5. FY2027-28 में India की GDP growth 6.6% projected है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 3, 4 and 5 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. The World Bank's Global Economic Prospects report projects global GDP growth at 2.6 percent in 2026. This forecast was revised upward by 0.2 percentage points compared with June 2025. Global growth is expected to edge up further to 2.7 percent in 2027. The report's source entry describes this situation under the theme 'Resilience Amidst Uncertainty', reflecting the fact that the world economy has performed somewhat better than previously anticipated despite continuing uncertainty. However, this resilience should not be interpreted as exceptionally strong global growth. The source states that the 2020s are projected to be the weakest decade for global economic growth since the 1960s. Global inflation is expected to moderate to 2.6 percent in 2026. India stands out in the report as the fastest-growing major economy. GDP growth is forecast at 7.2 percent for FY2025-26, supported by strong domestic demand, tax reforms and improved rural incomes. The following fiscal year, FY2026-27, is projected at 6.5 percent. The source associates this moderation with the impact of US import tariffs. Growth is then expected to improve slightly to 6.6 percent in FY2027-28, supported by recovery in exports and higher private investment. This question is particularly useful because examinations may interchange calendar-year global projections with fiscal-year India projections. Students should therefore memorise the sequence separately: Global → 2026: 2.6%, 2027: 2.7%; India → FY25-26: 7.2%, FY26-27: 6.5%, FY27-28: 6.6%. Since every statement correctly reproduces the source, option D is correct.
According to the World Bank's Global Economic Prospects report cited in the source, what is the projected global GDP growth rate for 2026?
Source में cited World Bank की Global Economic Prospects report के अनुसार 2026 के लिए projected global GDP growth rate क्या है?A. 2.2%B. 2.4%C. 2.6%D. 2.9%
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The correct answer is 2.6 percent. According to the source, the World Bank's flagship Global Economic Prospects report presents the global economy as more resilient than previously expected. The source gives the theme as 'Resilience Amidst Uncertainty'. Global GDP growth for 2026 is projected at 2.6 percent, which represents an upward revision of 0.2 percentage points compared with the forecast made in June 2025. Growth is then expected to increase slightly to 2.7 percent in 2027. Despite this resilience, the source highlights a significant longer-term concern: the 2020s are projected to become the weakest decade for global economic growth since the 1960s. This creates an important contrast between short-term resilience and weak longer-term historical performance. Global inflation is expected to moderate to 2.6 percent in 2026. The report entry also contains important India-specific projections. India is described as continuing to be the fastest-growing major economy, with GDP growth forecast at 7.2 percent in FY2025-26. The source attributes this performance to strong domestic demand, tax reforms and improved rural incomes. India's growth is projected to moderate to 6.5 percent in FY2026-27 due to the impact of US import tariffs. It is then projected at 6.6 percent in FY2027-28, supported by export recovery and higher private investment. For examinations, distinguish global growth from India's growth: global GDP → 2.6% in 2026 and 2.7% in 2027; India → 7.2% FY2025-26, 6.5% FY2026-27 and 6.6% FY2027-28. Global inflation → 2.6% in 2026. The upward revision in global growth → 0.2 percentage points. Therefore option C is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Risks Report 2026:
1. The report describes the current era as the 'Age of Competition'.
2. Economic confrontation replaced armed conflict as the top concern.
3. AI governance ranked 30th in the short term.
4. AI governance rose to 5th position for the long term.
5. Environmental risks remain major concerns over a ten-year horizon.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Global Risks Report 2026 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. Report current era को 'Age of Competition' कहती है।
2. Economic confrontation ने armed conflict को top concern के रूप में replace किया।
3. Short term में AI governance 30th rank पर था।
4. Long term में AI governance 5th position तक rise हुआ।
5. Ten-year horizon पर environmental risks major concerns बने रहते हैं।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. The World Economic Forum's Global Risks Report 2026 characterises the current period as the 'Age of Competition'. The report uses this framing because economic instruments such as sanctions, tariffs, investment restrictions and resource controls are increasingly being used as tools in geopolitical rivalry. The annual risks perception survey identified economic confrontation between nations as the top concern, displacing armed conflict. This change is significant because it suggests that respondents see economic coercion, trade restrictions and competition over strategic resources as particularly important immediate global risks. The source gives examples such as rising tariffs, checks on foreign investment and tighter resource controls. It also notes increasing US-China tensions, particularly over critical minerals. Environmental risks show a different pattern depending on the period being considered. Extreme weather and pollution fell in perceived importance for the next two years, but they remained leading concerns when respondents considered a ten-year horizon. This means the report does not suggest that environmental risks have disappeared; rather, their relative ranking is lower in the immediate period while remaining highly important over the longer term. Artificial Intelligence governance also changes sharply across time horizons. It ranked 30th in the short term but rose to fifth in the long-term assessment. The source associates this with fears regarding job impacts and wider social harm. For examination revision, remember three layers: immediate geopolitical-economic risk → economic confrontation; long-term environmental risk → still highly significant; technological risk → AI governance rises from 30th short-term to 5th long-term. The report was released by WEF in January 2026. Since every statement in the question accurately reflects the source, option D is correct.
According to the World Economic Forum's Global Risks Report 2026, which risk emerged as the top concern in its annual risks perception survey?
World Economic Forum की Global Risks Report 2026 के अनुसार annual risks perception survey में कौन-सा risk top concern बनकर उभरा?A. Armed conflictB. Economic confrontation between nationsC. Extreme weatherD. Artificial Intelligence governance
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The correct answer is economic confrontation between nations. The World Economic Forum released the Global Risks Report 2026 in January 2026. According to the source, the report describes the contemporary period as an 'Age of Competition'. This phrase reflects an environment in which economic tools are increasingly used as instruments of geopolitical rivalry. The source specifically identifies sanctions, tariffs and investment controls as examples of such tools. Economic confrontation between nations became the top concern in the WEF's annual risks perception survey, replacing armed conflict. Examples cited include rising tariffs, greater scrutiny of foreign investment and tighter controls over strategic resources. The source also refers to US 'America first' policies as contributing to higher global trading tariffs and greater US-China tensions, particularly over critical minerals. Environmental risks show an interesting time-horizon difference in the report. Extreme weather and pollution declined in perceived importance over the next two years but remained among the leading concerns over a ten-year horizon. Artificial Intelligence governance displays a similar but even more striking difference. According to the source, concerns regarding AI governance ranked only 30th in the short term but rose to fifth position in the long term, reflecting fears over employment impacts and broader social harm. Thus, the report indicates a shift in immediate risk perception away from direct violence and conflict and toward economic and technological challenges. For examinations, remember the key associations: Global Risks Report 2026 → World Economic Forum → January 2026 → 'Age of Competition' → economic confrontation top concern → armed conflict replaced → sanctions, tariffs, investment controls and resource controls as tools of rivalry. Also remember AI governance: 30th short term, 5th long term. Therefore option B is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Henley Passport Index 2026:
1. Singapore ranked first with access to 192 destinations.
2. UAE ranked fifth with access to 184 destinations.
3. United States ranked tenth with access to 179 destinations.
4. Pakistan ranked 98th with access to 31 destinations.
5. Afghanistan ranked 101st with access to 24 destinations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Henley Passport Index 2026 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. Singapore 192 destinations के access के साथ first rank पर रहा।
2. UAE 184 destinations के access के साथ fifth rank पर रहा।
3. United States 179 destinations के access के साथ tenth rank पर रहा।
4. Pakistan 31 destinations के access के साथ 98th rank पर रहा।
5. Afghanistan 24 destinations के access के साथ 101st rank पर रहा।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. The Henley Passport Index 2026 provides a comparative picture of international travel access associated with different passports. Singapore retained the first position for the third consecutive year and had access to 192 destinations. The United Arab Emirates achieved its highest-ever ranking, reaching fifth place with access to 184 destinations. The United States returned to the top ten and occupied the 10th position, with access to 179 destinations. At the lower end of the ranking, Pakistan was placed 98th with access to 31 destinations, while Afghanistan occupied the final 101st position with access to only 24 destinations. India, although not directly listed in the five statements, is another important part of the same current-affairs item. India rose five places from 85th in 2025 to 80th in 2026 and shared its position with Niger and Algeria. Indian passport holders had visa-free, visa-on-arrival or ETA access to 55 destinations. India had also ranked 80th in 2024 before falling to 85th in 2025, so the latest result represented a recovery. The source states that the index data are based on International Air Transport Association statistics. For competitive exams, numerical pairing is crucial because options can easily swap the rank and access figures of different countries. The correct memory set from the source is Singapore 1st/192; UAE 5th/184; US 10th/179; India 80th/55; Pakistan 98th/31; Afghanistan 101st/24. Since each of the five statements reproduces these values correctly, option D, all five statements, is the correct answer.
What was India's rank in the Henley Passport Index 2026 according to the source?
Source के अनुसार Henley Passport Index 2026 में India की rank क्या थी?A. 75thB. 80thC. 85thD. 90th
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The correct answer is 80th. According to the February 2026 Current Affairs source, the Henley Passport Index 2026 placed the Indian passport at the 80th position. The ranking was released around 13-14 January 2026. India's position improved by five places from 85th in 2025 to 80th in 2026. Interestingly, the source notes that India had also been ranked 80th in 2024 before slipping in 2025, so the 2026 result represents a recovery to its earlier position. India shared the 80th rank with Niger and Algeria. Indian passport holders had visa-free, visa-on-arrival or Electronic Travel Authorisation access to 55 destinations. The source also provides several comparative global rankings. Singapore ranked first for the third consecutive year and provided access to 192 destinations. The United States returned to the top ten at 10th position with access to 179 destinations. The United Arab Emirates achieved its highest-ever ranking at fifth position, with access to 184 destinations. At the lower end, Afghanistan ranked 101st and had access to 24 destinations. Pakistan ranked 98th with access to 31 destinations. The source states that the data are based on International Air Transport Association statistics. For examinations, students should distinguish between rank and destination-access numbers. India = rank 80, access 55; Singapore = rank 1, access 192; UAE = rank 5, access 184; US = rank 10, access 179; Pakistan = rank 98, access 31; Afghanistan = rank 101, access 24. The central current-affairs change for India is an improvement of five positions from 85th in 2025 to 80th in 2026. Therefore option B is correct.
Consider the following pairs regarding the Responsible Nations Index:
1. Internal Responsibility — Dignity, justice and citizen well-being
2. Environmental Responsibility — Resource stewardship and climate action
3. External Responsibility — Contributions to peace and global stability
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Responsible Nations Index के संबंध में निम्नलिखित pairs पर विचार कीजिए:
1. Internal Responsibility — Dignity, justice और citizen well-being
2. Environmental Responsibility — Resource stewardship और climate action
3. External Responsibility — Peace और global stability में contribution
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से pairs correctly matched हैं?A. 1 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All three pairs are correctly matched according to the source. The Responsible Nations Index announced by the World Intellectual Foundation is built around three main dimensions intended to provide a broad assessment of national responsibility. Internal Responsibility evaluates dignity, justice and citizen well-being. This dimension therefore looks inward at how a country performs in relation to its own people and domestic governance responsibilities. Environmental Responsibility measures resource stewardship and climate action. This reflects the idea that responsible governance also requires sustainable management of natural resources and attention to environmental and climate-related challenges. External Responsibility focuses on contributions to peace and global stability. This third dimension shifts the focus from domestic conditions to the country's behaviour and contribution within the wider international system. Taken together, the three dimensions attempt to balance responsibilities toward citizens, the environment and the international community. The source states that the index seeks to evaluate countries in domestic governance, environmental stewardship and international engagement. It also highlights ethical governance, sustainability and global cooperation. World Intellectual Foundation Chairperson Jagdish Mukhi explained that the index aims to objectively assess national responsibility by highlighting the balance among citizen welfare, environmental sustainability and global cooperation. The launch was scheduled in New Delhi on 19 January and was to feature former President of India Ram Nath Kovind. For competitive examinations, use the three-part mapping: Internal = dignity + justice + citizen well-being; Environmental = resource stewardship + climate action; External = peace + global stability. The terms should not be interchanged. For example, climate action belongs to Environmental Responsibility rather than External Responsibility, while peace and global stability fall under External Responsibility. Since all three mappings in the question reproduce the source framework correctly, option D is the correct answer.
Which organisation announced the launch of the Responsible Nations Index in New Delhi?
New Delhi में Responsible Nations Index launch करने की घोषणा किस organisation ने की?A. World Economic ForumB. World Intellectual FoundationC. United Nations Development ProgrammeD. NITI Aayog
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The correct answer is the World Intellectual Foundation. According to the source, the World Intellectual Foundation was to launch the Responsible Nations Index on 19 January in New Delhi. The index is designed to evaluate how countries perform across domestic governance, environmental stewardship and international engagement. This makes the index different from rankings that focus only on economic size, income or military strength. Instead, its stated purpose is to examine the concept of national responsibility by considering how governments treat citizens, manage environmental resources and contribute to international peace and stability. The source associates the initiative with ethical governance, sustainability and global cooperation. Former President of India Ram Nath Kovind was to feature at the New Delhi launch. World Intellectual Foundation Chairperson Jagdish Mukhi stated that the index aims to objectively assess national responsibility by balancing citizen welfare, environmental sustainability and global cooperation. Three principal assessment dimensions are given. The first is Internal Responsibility, which evaluates dignity, justice and citizen well-being. The second is Environmental Responsibility, which examines resource stewardship and climate action. The third is External Responsibility, which focuses on contributions to peace and global stability. These three dimensions should be memorised because they can form both direct and statement-based examination questions. A useful conceptual distinction is: Internal → citizens and justice; Environmental → resources and climate; External → peace and global stability. The source does not provide country rankings in the excerpt being used here, so such rankings should not be inferred. For examination purposes, remember: Responsible Nations Index → World Intellectual Foundation → launch in New Delhi → 19 January → former President Ram Nath Kovind → Chairperson Jagdish Mukhi → three dimensions: Internal, Environmental and External Responsibility. Therefore option B is correct.
Consider the following pairs regarding the pillars of Export Preparedness Index 2024 and their weightage:
1. Business Ecosystem — 40%
2. Export Infrastructure — 20%
3. Policy & Governance — 20%
4. Export Performance — 20%
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Export Preparedness Index 2024 के pillars और उनके weightage से संबंधित निम्नलिखित pairs पर विचार कीजिए:
1. Business Ecosystem — 40%
2. Export Infrastructure — 20%
3. Policy & Governance — 20%
4. Export Performance — 20%
उपर्युक्त में से कितने pairs correctly matched हैं?A. Only oneB. Only twoC. Only threeD. All four
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All four pairs are correctly matched. The Export Preparedness Index 2024 framework in the source contains four principal pillars with a total of 13 sub-pillars and 70 indicators. Business Ecosystem receives the highest weightage at 40 percent. This pillar evaluates macroeconomic conditions, cost competitiveness, human capital, access to finance and the MSME ecosystem. These factors are important because exporters operate within a broader economic environment; access to skilled labour, affordable finance and competitive operating costs can influence their ability to participate in international markets. Export Infrastructure carries 20 percent weightage. It focuses on trade infrastructure, logistics, connectivity and utilities. Efficient infrastructure is essential for moving goods from production centres to ports, airports, land borders and international markets. Policy & Governance has another 20 percent weight. This pillar evaluates State-level export policies and regulatory environments. A supportive regulatory framework can reduce administrative barriers and create greater predictability for exporters. Export Performance carries the final 20 percent. Unlike the enabling-condition pillars, this measures actual outcomes, including export performance, diversification and integration with global markets. The distribution therefore follows a 40-20-20-20 pattern. Business Ecosystem alone accounts for two-fifths of the overall framework, while the other three pillars have equal weight. The index evaluates States and Union Territories and is linked in the source to India's ambition to achieve USD 1 trillion in merchandise exports by 2030 as well as Viksit Bharat @2047. The fourth edition was released by NITI Aayog on 14 January 2026. For examinations, the most efficient memory formula is 'B-E-P-E = 40-20-20-20': Business Ecosystem, Export Infrastructure, Policy & Governance, Export Performance. Since each pair in the question exactly matches the source, all four are correct and option D is the answer.
The Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2024 released by NITI Aayog was which edition of the index?
NITI Aayog द्वारा released Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2024 index का कौन-सा edition था?A. SecondB. ThirdC. FourthD. Fifth
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The correct answer is the fourth edition. According to the source, NITI Aayog released the fourth edition of the Export Preparedness Index 2024 on 14 January 2026. The EPI evaluates the export readiness of India's States and Union Territories. This makes it an important sub-national assessment tool because India's overall export performance depends not only on national policies but also on infrastructure, business conditions, governance and export capabilities at the State and Union Territory level. The source explicitly connects the index with India's national objective of reaching USD 1 trillion in merchandise exports by 2030 and with the broader vision of Viksit Bharat @2047. EPI 2024 is structured around four main pillars, supported by 13 sub-pillars and 70 indicators. The largest weight is assigned to Business Ecosystem at 40 percent. This pillar evaluates factors including macroeconomy, cost competitiveness, human capital, financial access and the MSME ecosystem. Export Infrastructure carries 20 percent weight and focuses on trade, logistics, connectivity and utilities. Policy & Governance also has a 20 percent weight and assesses State-level export policies and regulatory environments. Export Performance carries the remaining 20 percent and measures actual export outcomes, diversification and global integration. The weighting pattern is particularly important for objective examinations: Business Ecosystem = 40%, while each of the other three pillars = 20%. Together they total 100%. The framework shows that export preparedness is broader than merely counting current exports. A State may need a supportive business environment, logistics infrastructure and appropriate policies in addition to strong actual export outcomes. For revision, remember: EPI 2024 → NITI Aayog → fourth edition → released 14 January 2026 → States and UTs → 4 pillars → 13 sub-pillars → 70 indicators → merchandise-export goal USD 1 trillion by 2030. Hence option C is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding ICJS 2.0:
1. It is based on the principle of 'One Data, One Entry'.
2. NCRB under the Ministry of Home Affairs releases ICJS dashboard reports.
3. It seeks to enhance transparency and timeliness in the criminal justice system.
4. It aims to support evidence-based investigations.
5. Uttarakhand Police scored 93.46 in the ICJS 2.0 rankings.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
ICJS 2.0 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. यह 'One Data, One Entry' principle पर आधारित है।
2. Ministry of Home Affairs के अंतर्गत NCRB ICJS dashboard reports release करता है।
3. इसका उद्देश्य criminal justice system में transparency और timeliness बढ़ाना है।
4. यह evidence-based investigations को support करने का प्रयास करता है।
5. Uttarakhand Police ने ICJS 2.0 rankings में 93.46 score किया।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct according to the source. ICJS stands for Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System. The February 2026 Current Affairs material describes ICJS 2.0 as a digital platform intended to unify criminal-justice procedures. A particularly important phrase associated with the platform is 'One Data, One Entry'. This principle is examination-worthy because it captures the system's approach to integrated data management. The National Crime Records Bureau, or NCRB, under the Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for releasing ICJS dashboard reports. Therefore, students should not confuse the reporting institution with a State Police organisation or another central investigative agency. The objectives listed for ICJS 2.0 include greater transparency, improved timeliness and evidence-based investigations within the justice system. These objectives show that the platform is intended not simply to digitise records but to improve the quality and efficiency of criminal-justice administration. The source highlights Uttarakhand as an example of successful implementation. Uttarakhand Police achieved the top rank nationwide with a score of 93.46. Its early adoption of ICJS modules is cited as demonstrating strong technological capabilities and effective district-level coordination. This creates several possible examination questions from the same fact: the top-ranked State Police, the score, the underlying principle, the organisation releasing dashboard reports and the system's major objectives. A useful revision chain is: ICJS 2.0 → digital criminal-justice platform → One Data, One Entry → NCRB → Ministry of Home Affairs → transparency + timeliness + evidence-based investigation → Uttarakhand Police rank 1 → score 93.46. Since every statement in the question is explicitly supported by the source, the correct answer is option D, statements 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
Which State Police secured the top position in the nationwide Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) 2.0 rankings?
Nationwide Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) 2.0 rankings में किस State Police ने top position प्राप्त की?A. Uttar Pradesh PoliceB. Uttarakhand PoliceC. Madhya Pradesh PoliceD. Himachal Pradesh Police
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The correct answer is Uttarakhand Police. According to the February 2026 Current Affairs source, Uttarakhand Police achieved the top rank in the nationwide Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System, or ICJS, 2.0 rankings with a score of 93.46. This is an important governance and digital-justice current-affairs development because ICJS 2.0 is designed as a digital platform to bring greater integration to criminal-justice procedures. The source specifically associates the system with the principle 'One Data, One Entry'. The idea is to improve the handling and availability of information across the criminal-justice ecosystem instead of relying on repeated or fragmented data entry. The National Crime Records Bureau, or NCRB, functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for releasing ICJS dashboard reports. The objectives highlighted in the source include improving transparency, ensuring timeliness and strengthening evidence-based investigations within the justice system. Uttarakhand's performance is attributed to its early adoption of ICJS modules, technological capabilities and effective coordination at the district level. The same current-affairs entry also highlights the role of the Uttarakhand State Disaster Response Force during Prayagraj Mahakumbh-2025. A 112-member SDRF team was deployed and received appreciation for water rescue, first aid, crowd management and assistance to missing pilgrims in sensitive areas. The Uttar Pradesh Government recognised SDRF personnel with medals and commendation certificates. For examinations, keep the two parts of this news item separate: ICJS 2.0 ranking → Uttarakhand Police → first rank → score 93.46; Mahakumbh-2025 deployment → Uttarakhand SDRF → 112-member team. Also remember NCRB → Ministry of Home Affairs → ICJS dashboard reports. Therefore, option B is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the fifth edition of NITI Aayog's Trade Watch Quarterly report:
1. It was launched by Dr Arvind Virmani.
2. It covered Q1, April-June 2025.
3. India's exports in Q1 FY26 stood at USD 209 billion.
4. India's imports in Q1 FY26 stood at USD 230 billion.
5. The resulting trade deficit was USD 21 billion.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
NITI Aayog की Trade Watch Quarterly report के fifth edition के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:
1. इसे Dr Arvind Virmani ने launch किया।
2. यह Q1, April-June 2025 को cover करती है।
3. Q1 FY26 में India के exports USD 209 billion थे।
4. Q1 FY26 में India के imports USD 230 billion थे।
5. Resulting trade deficit USD 21 billion था।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3, 4 and 5 onlyD. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
All five statements are correct. Dr Arvind Virmani, a member of NITI Aayog, launched the fifth edition of the Trade Watch Quarterly, or TWQ, report for Q1 corresponding to April-June 2025 in New Delhi. The report examines India's trade performance against the background of global economic developments. It places particular emphasis on automotive exports, demand patterns, tariff structures and participation in global value chains. The source provides several important numerical facts. The global auto-components market reached USD 856 billion in 2024. India's auto-component exports nearly doubled from USD 8.2 billion to USD 16.9 billion, growing at a compound annual growth rate of about 7 percent. Despite this progress, India's share in the global automotive import market remained around 1 percent. The source also notes export growth at a CAGR of 3.5 percent and stronger performance in motorcycle exports, where India's global share was around 9 percent. At the overall trade level, global goods and services trade increased by 2.5 percent in Q1 FY26. India's exports during the period stood at USD 209 billion, while imports were USD 230 billion. The difference between imports and exports produced a trade deficit of USD 21 billion. The services sector emerged as the main driver of India's trade performance during the quarter. The report also points to structural shifts toward technology-intensive exports and changing import patterns. For competitive examinations, remember the core combination: Trade Watch Quarterly fifth edition → NITI Aayog → Dr Arvind Virmani → Q1 April-June 2025 → exports USD 209 billion → imports USD 230 billion → deficit USD 21 billion. Since all five statements are source-supported, option D is correct.
